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Vendor: Cisco
Certifications: CCNA Data Center
Exam Name: Introducing Cisco Data Center Technologies
Exam Code: 200-155
Total Questions: 101 Q&As

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New Cisco CCNA Data Center 200-155 Dumps Exam Practice Questions And Answers (Q1-Q30)

QUESTION 1
Which two are benefits of Cisco Unified Fabric? (Choose two )
A. SNMPv3 strong authentication
B. reduced cabling
C. zone port distribution
D. consolidation of LAN and SAN over a common transport
E. native AES-256 encryption of data in flight
Correct Answer: BD

QUESTION 2

Refer to the exhibit. A network engineer allocates 12 physical ports to a new VDC. Which command is used to verify VDC port allocation on a Cisco Nexus switch?
A. show vdc port-membership
B. show vdc port-allocation
C. show vdc allocation
D. show vdc membership
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 3
A network design engineer is asked to design a SAN (or a company Which two underlying principles of SAN design should be considered? Choose two.)
A. fault isolation, consolidation while maintaining isolation
B. future growth in LAN infrastructure
C. security management, preferential network security
D. scalability of LAN infrastructure, reduced Ethernet QoS complexity
E. short and long term port density and topology requirements
Correct Answer: AE

QUESTION 4
Which two adapters far Cisco UCS B-Series blade servers and C-Series rack servers allow configuration of virtual interfaces? (Choose two.)
A. M71-KR
B. P71E
C. VIC-1225
D. P81E
E. VIC-1280
Correct Answer: DE

QUESTION 5
Which option describes the STP requirements for Cisco Fabric Path?
A. MST must be configured an every Cisco Fabric Path VLAN.
B. STP is required only to resolve border link failures
C. RPVST must be configured on every Cisco Fabric Path VLAN
D. STP is not required on Cisco Fabric Path interfaces.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 6
Which ports on the Cisco UCS 6120XP Fabric Interconnects can operate at either 1 Gb/s or 10 Gb/s?
A. Ports 1?
B. None
C. Ports 1?
D. Ports 1?
E. Ports 17?0
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 7
A user is trying to create a new VDC in NX-OS in global configurations mode, but receives an error message What issue prevents the user from creating Virtual Device Contexts?
A. VDCs cannot be created in global configuration mode.
B. The user is not a vdc-admin.
C. The user is not a member of the VDC Power Admin group.
D. The user is not a network-admin.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 8
200-155 dumps Which option describes Cisco’s virtual device context feature?
A. logical virtualization of a single physical switch
B. logical witches aggregated into a single physical switch
C. logical switches aggregated into multiple physical switches
D. multiple physical switches partitioned to a single virtual switch
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 9
A Cisco UCS administrator wants only the Cisco UCS chassis with four connections between each IOM and the Fabric Interconnect pair to be recognized. Which policy and corresponding action must be configured?
A. Chassis/FEX Discovery Policy, Action: 4-link
B. Chassis/FEX Discovery Policy, Redundancy Action: N+1
C. Rack Management Connection Policy, Action: 4-link
D. Power Policy, Redundancy Action: Grid
E. Rack Server Discovery Policy, Action: 4-link
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 10
Which three are the names of configuration tabs that appear in the Navigation Pane of the UCS Manager GUI? (Choose three.)
A. VLAN
B. LAN
C. VSAN
D. Policies
E. Equipment
F. Global
G. Admin
Correct Answer: BEG

QUESTION 11
Which two Cisco data center devices can participate in Fabric Path? (Choose two.)
A. Cisco MOS 9500 Series directors
B. Cisco Nexus 7000 Series Switches
C. Cisco Nexus 5500 Series Switches
D. Cisco Nexus 1000V
E. Cisco Nexus 4900 Series Switches
Correct Answer: BC

QUESTION 12
The marketing, research, and business departments of a company each have servers and storage in the SAN fabric connected to a Cisco MDS switch. The storage engineer is asked to ensure that each department’s servers and storage are isolated from the other departments. Which two steps can the engineer take to accomplish this task? (Choose two.)
A. Create VSAN 10, 11, and 12 on the MDS switch.
B. Add marketing devices to VSAN 10, research to VSAN 11, and business to VSAN 12.
C. Create VSAN 10 on the MDS switch.
D. Add marketing, research, and business devices to VSAN 10.
E. Create VSAN 10 and VSAN 11.
F. Add all storage devices to VSAN 10. Add all server devices to VSAN 11.
Correct Answer: AB

QUESTION 13
Which two modes of setup are offered on the initial setup script on a Cisco UCS Fabric Interconnect? (Choose two.)
A. Restore
B. Setup
C. Console
D. Serial
E. Management 0
Correct Answer: AB

QUESTION 14
Which two Cisco Nexus 1000V Series Switch features exceed the functionality of the VWware vNetwork Distributed Switch? (Choose two )
A. access control lists
B. QoS marking
C. Network vMotion
D. port state migration
E. DV Port Groups
Correct Answer: AB

QUESTION 15
Which of the following is a virtual technology that helps create multiple route tables that function on the same physical router?
A. VSS
B. vPC
C. VRF
D. VSAN
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 16
Layer 3 networks can be logically separated by which technology?
A. bridge domain
B. VRF
C. VLAN
D. tenant
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 17
What are two advantages to running Fabric Path in the data center over using Spanning Tree? (Choose two.)
A. provides multi chassis Ether Channel capabilities
B. allows every switch to send BPDUs to each other to ensure the L2 topology is synchronized
C. has L2 multipath forwarding capacities
D. uses B02 1 q trunks to ensure VLANs are propagated through the topology
E. uses TTL field to provide loop mitigation
Correct Answer: CE

QUESTION 18
A network engineer wants to configure switch ports on Cisco Nexus 2000 and 2200 Fabric Extender switches that are connected to a Cisco Nexus 5500 Series Switch. Which two options allow this configuration? 200-155 dumps (Choose two)
A. Connect to each of the Cisco Nexus 2200/2000 switches using Telnet, then configure the FEX switch ports.
B. Connect to a Cisco Nexus 5600 using Telnet, then configure the FEX switch ports.
C. Connect to each of the Cisco Nexus 2200/2000 switches using SSH, then configure the FEX switch ports.
D. Connect to each at the Cisco Nexus 2200/2000 switches using a console cable then configure the FEX switch ports.
E. Connect to a Cisco Nexus 5500 switch using SSH, then configure the FEX switch ports.
Correct Answer: BE

QUESTION 19
What are two main benefits of standardized open API’s in a multi-vendor environment? (Choose two)
A. automation
B. clustering
C. interoperability
D. centralized management
E. configuration management
Correct Answer: AD

QUESTION 20
Which two options are advantages of a spine and leaf architecture? (Choose two )
A. robust multipathing
B. traffic that is optimized for east-west communication
C. star topology
D. traffic that is optimized for north-south communication
E. exponential scalability
Correct Answer: AE

QUESTION 21
What is the primary benefit of Cisco Global Load Balancing Solution?
A. implements business continuity and disaster recovery by optimizing the DNS infrastructure
B. encrypts data communication
C. accelerates content delivery through a designated content cache engine
D. adds resiliency to the core layer of a data center
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 22
Which Cisco Nexus 1000V component is the equivalent of a line card on a standard Cisco Nexus switch?
A. Virtual Ethernet Module
B. Virtual Supervisor Module
C. Virtual Service Blade
D. Virtual Security Gateway
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 23
Which tool organizes workflows to automate simple and complex actions on infrastructure?
A. Cisco UCS Manager
B. Cisco UCS Director
C. Cisco DCNM
D. Cisco UCS server
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 24
Which three are the three primary methods to configure Cisco UCS B-Series systems? (Choose three.)
A. SNMP
B. XML API
C. UCS Manager GUI
D. IPMI
E. UCS Manager CLI
F. CIM-XML
Correct Answer: BCE

QUESTION 25
Which management platform reduces server provisioning tome by automatically performing an inventory and deep discovery when new devices are attached?
A. UCS Manager
B. UCS Server
C. CDP Manager
D. Enterprise Manager
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 26
A customer deployed Cisco B200 blades with service profiles. The customer experiences an outage on one of the Cisco B200 blades that will be replaced with a spare blade already in inventory. Which two steps should the customer take to replace the failed blade? (Choose two.)
A. Disassociate the service profile from the failed blade.
B. Associate the service profile to the spare blade.
C. Create a new service profile for the spare blade.
D. Delete the service profile from the spare blade.
E. Create a new service profile template for the failed blade.
Correct Answer: AB

QUESTION 27
Which feature monitors state transitions of components and processes in Cisco Unified Computing System?
A. finite state machine
B. state monitor
C. state manager
D. discovery
E. logical state arbiter
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 28
A network engineer is migrating the server farm from 1 Gb/s Ethernet connectivity la 10 Gb/s Ethernet connectivity What two Cisco Nexus Fabric Extenders support 10 Gb/s server connectivity? 200-155 dumps (Choose two.)
A. Nexus 2148T
B. Nexus 2232PP
C. Nexus 2248TP
D. Nexus 2248PQ
E. Nexus 2224TP
Correct Answer: BD

QUESTION 29
Which statements are valid for a local SPAN configuration’? (Choose two.)
A. Source and destination interface must be on the same host
B. Source and destination interfaces can be on different hosts
C. Destination vEthernet interface can be on a different VLAN than the source
D. Destination interface can be a physical port
E. Destination interface cannot be a physical port
Correct Answer: AD

QUESTION 30
When using a Cisco UCS Director, a typical workflow consists of which two terms? (Choose Two )
A. Resource Manager
B. Workflow Designer
C. Scheduler
D. Activity Planner
E. Predefined Tasks
Correct Answer: BE

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New Cisco CCDP 300-101 Dumps Exam Real Questions And Answers (1-30)

QUESTION 1
A network engineer executes the show ip cache flow command. Wich two types of information are displayed in the report that is generated? (Choose 2)
A. top talkers
B. flow export statistics
C. flow sample for specific protocols
D. MLS flow traffic
E. IP packet distribution
Correct Answer: CE

QUESTION 2
At which layer does Cisco Express Forwarding use adjacency tables to populate addressing information?
A. Layer4
B. Layer 2
C. Layer 1
D. Layer 3
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 3
Which traffic does the following configuration allow? ipv6 access-list cisco permit ipv6 host 2001:DB8:0:4::32 any eq ssh line vty 0 4 ipv6 access-class cisco in
A. all traffic to vty 0 4 from source 2001:DB8:0:4::32
B. only ssh traffic to vty 0 4 from source all
C. only ssh traffic to vty 0 4 from source 2001:DB8:0:4::32
D. all traffic to vty 0 4 from source all
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 4
Refer to the exhibit. Will redistributed RIP routes from OSPF Area 2 be allowed in Area 1?

A. Because Area 1 is an NSSA, redistributed RIP routes will not be allowed.
B. Redistributed RIP routes will be allowed in Area 1 because they will be changed into type 5 LSAs in Area 0 and passed on into Area 1.
C. Because NSSA will discard type 7 LSAs, redistributed RIP routes will not be allowed in Area 1.
D. Redistributed RIP routes will be allowed in Area 1 because they will be changed into type 7 LSAs in Area 0 and passed on into Area 1.
E. RIP routes will be allowed in Area 1 only if they are first redistributed into EIGRP.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 5
Which Cisco VPN technology uses AAA to implement group policies and authorization and is also used for the XAUTH authentication method?
A. DMVPN
B. Cisco Easy VPN
C. GETVPN
D. GREVPN
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 6
After you review the output of the command show ipv6 interface brief, you see that several IPv6 addresses have the 16-bit hexadecimal value of andquot;FFFEandquot; inserted into the address. 300-101 dumps Based on this information, what do you conclude about these IPv6 addresses?
A. IEEE EUI-64 was implemented when assigning IPv6 addresses on the device.
B. The addresses were misconfigured and will not function as intended.
C. IPv6 addresses containing andquot;FFFEandquot; indicate that the address is reserved for multicast.
D. The IPv6 universal/local flag (bit 7) was flipped.
E. IPv6 unicast forwarding was enabled, but IPv6 Cisco Express Forwarding was disabled.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 7
Which method allows IPv4 and IPv6 to work together without requiring both to be used for a single connection during the migration process?
A. dual-stack method
B. 6to4 tunneling
C. GRE tunneling
D. NAT-PT
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 8
Refer to the exhibit.

If R1 is configured for 6to4 tunneling, what will the prefix of its IPv6 network be?
A. 1723:1100:1::/48
B. FFFF:AC1F:6401::/16
C. AC1F:6401::/32
D. 2002:AC1F:6401::/48
E. 3FFE:AC1F:6401::/32
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 9
Refer to the exhibit.

A new TAC engineer came to you for advice. A GRE over IPsec tunnel was configured, but the tunnel is not coming up.
What did the TAC engineer configure incorrectly?
A. The crypto isakmp configuration is not correct.
B. The crypto map configuration is not correct.
C. The network 172.16.1.0 is not included in the OSPF process.
D. The interface tunnel configuration is not correct.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 10
A network administrator uses GRE over IPSec to connect two branches together via VPN tunnel. Which one of the following is the reason for using GRE over IPSec?
A. GRE over IPSec provides better QoS mechanism and is faster than other WAN technologies.
B. GRE over IPSec decreases the overhead of the header.
C. GRE supports use of routing protocol, while IPSec supports encryption.
D. GRE supports encryption, while IPSec supports use of routing protocol.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 11
After you review the output of the command show ipv6 interface brief, you see that several IPv6 addresses have the 16-bit hexadecimal value of andquot;FFFEandquot; inserted into the address. Based on this information, what do you conclude about these IPv6 addresses?
A. IEEE EUI-64 was implemented when assigning IPv6 addresses on the device.
B. The addresses were misconfigured and will not function as intended.
C. IPv6 addresses containing andquot;FFFEandquot; indicate that the address is reserved for multicast.
D. The IPv6 universal/local flag (bit 7) was flipped.
E. IPv6 unicast forwarding was enabled, but IPv6 Cisco Express Forwarding was disabled.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 12
Which method allows IPv4 and IPv6 to work together without requiring both to be used for a single connection during the migration process?
A. dual-stack method
B. 6to4 tunneling
C. GRE tunneling
D. NAT-PT
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 13
Which two methods of deployment can you use when implementing NAT64? 300-101 dumps (Choose two.)
A. stateless
B. stateful
C. manual
D. automatic
E. static
F. functional
G. dynamic
Correct Answer: AB

QUESTION 14
Which statement about dual stack is true?
A. Dual stack translates IPv6 addresses to IPv4 addresses.
B. Dual stack means that devices are able to run IPv4 and IPv6 in parallel.
C. Dual stack translates IPv4 addresses to IPv6 addresses.
D. Dual stack changes the IP addresses on hosts from IPv4 to IPv6 automatically.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 15
The following configuration is applied to a router at a branch site: ipv6 dhcp pool dhcp-pool dns-server 2001:DB8:1:B::1 dns-server 2001:DB8:3:307C::42 domain-name example.com ! If IPv6 is configured with default settings on all interfaces on the router, which two dynamic IPv6 addressing mechanisms could you use on end hosts to provide end-to-end connectivity? (Choose two.)
A. EUI-64
B. SLAAC
C. DHCPv6
D. BOOTP
Correct Answer: AB

QUESTION 16
Which two statements about EVN are true? (Choose two)
A. Virtual network tags are assigned per-VRF.
B. it is supported only on access ports.
C. Virtual network tags are assigned globally.
D. Routing metrics can be manipulated only from directly within the routing-context configuration.
E. The VLAN ID in the 802.1q frame carries the virtual network tag.
F. The VLAN ID is the ISL frame carries the virtual network tag.
Correct Answer: AE

QUESTION 17
In which scenario can asymmetric routing occur?
A. active/active firewall setup
B. single path in and out of the network.
C. active/standby firewall setup
D. redundant routers running VRRP
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 18
A network administrator uses GRE over IPSec to connect two branches together via VPN tunnel. Which one of the following is the reason for using GRE over IPSec?
A. GRE over IPSec provides better QoS mechanism and is faster than other WAN technologies.
B. GRE over IPSec decreases the overhead of the header.
C. GRE supports use of routing protocol, while IPSec supports encryption.
D. GRE supports encryption, while IPSec supports use of routing protocol.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 19
What is the benefit of deploying IPv6 in a campus network using dual stack mode?
A. Dual Stack Mode takes advantage of IPv6 over IPv4 tunnel within a network.
B. IPv4 and IPv6 run alongside one another and have no dependency on each other to function
C. IPv4 and IPv6 share network resources.
D. IPv6 can depend on existing IPv4 routing, QoS, security, and multicast policies.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 20
Which two phases of DMVPN allow to spoke sites to create dynamic tunnels to one another? (Choose Two)
A. Phase 1
B. Phase 2
C. Phase 3
D. Phase 4
E. Phase 5
Correct Answer: BC

QUESTION 21
Which two options are requirements for EIGRP authentication? (Choose two)
A. A crypto map must be configured.
B. The Authentication key must be configured under the interface running EIGRP.
C. The authentication key must be configured within the EIGRP routing configuration.
D. The authentication key IDs must match between two neighbors.
E. A separate key chain must be configured.
F. AN IPsec profile must be configured.
Correct Answer: BD

QUESTION 22
Which of the following is a GRE Tunnel characteristic?
A. GRE impose more CPU overhead than IPSec on VPN gateways
B. GRE tunnels can run through IPsec tunnels.
C. GRE Tunnel doesn\’t have support for IPv6
D. GRE consists of two sub-protocols: Encapsulated Security Payload (ESP) and Authentication Header (AH).
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 23
A network engineer has been asked to ensure that the PPPoE connection is established and authenticated using an encrypted password. Which technology, in combination with PPPoE, can be used for authentication in this manner?
A. PAP
B. dot1x
C. IPsec
D. CHAP
E. ESP
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 24
Refer to the exhibit.

Which statement is correct regarding the operation of NAT-PT between the IPv4 and IPv6 networks shown? 300-101 dumps
A. The router will determine the IPv4 destination address.
B. The source IPv6 host can use DNS to determine the IPv6-to-IPv4 address mapping.
C. The host is statically configured with the IPv6-to-IPv4 address mapping.
D. ICMP can be used to determine the IPv6-to-IPv4 address mapping.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 25
Refer to the exhibit.

Which interoperability technique implemented on the router would allow Host-1 to communicate with Host-2?
A. Dual Stack
B. NAT-PT
C. 6to4 tunnel
D. GRE tunnel
E. ISATAP tunnel
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 26
A network engineer executes the andquot;ipv6 flowsetandquot; command. What is the result?
A. Flow-label marking in 1280-byte or larger packets is enabled.
B. Flow-set marking in 1280-byte or larger packets is enabled.
C. IPv6 PMTU is enabled on the router.
D. IPv6 flow control is enabled on the router.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 27
Which two statements are true about using IPv4 and IPv6 simultaneously on a network segment? (Choose two.)
A. Hosts can be configured to receive both IPv4 and IPv6 addresses via DHCP.
B. Host configuration options for IPv4 can be either statically assigned or assigned via DHCP.Host configuration options for IPv6 can be statically assigned only.
C. IPv6 allows a host to create its own IPv6 address that will allow it to communicate to other devices on a network configured via DHCP. IPv4 does not provide a similar capability for hosts.
D. IPv4 and IPv6 addresses can be simultaneously assigned to a host but not to a router interface.
E. IPv6 provides for more host IP addresses but IPv4 provides for more network addresses.
Correct Answer: AC

QUESTION 28
A network engineer enables OSPF on a Frame Relay WAN connecton to various remote sties, but no OSPF adiacencies come up. Which two actions are possible solutions for this issue? (Choose Two)
A. Change the network type to point-to-murpont under WAN interface
B. Enable virtual Iinks
C. Change the networktype to nonbroadcast mutpoint access
D. Configure the neighbor command under OSPF process for each remote site
E. Ensure that the OSPF process number matches among all remote sites
Correct Answer: AD

QUESTION 29
The OSPF database of a router shows LSA types 1, 2, 3, and 7 only. Which type of area is this router connected to?
A. stub area
B. totally stubby area
C. backbone area
D. not-so-stubby area
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 30
What is the benefit of deploying IPv6 in a campus network using dual stack mode? 300-101 dumps
A. Dual Stack Mode takes advantage of IPv6 over IPv4 tunnel within a network.
B. IPv4 and IPv6 run alongside one another and have no dependency on each other to function
C. IPv4 and IPv6 share network resources.
D. IPv6 can depend on existing IPv4 routing, QoS, security, and multicast policies.
Correct Answer: B

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High Quality Cisco CCDP 300-115 Dumps Exam Questions And Answers (1-30)

QUESTION 1
Which statement about the use of SDM templates in a Cisco switch is true?
A. SDMtemplates are used to configure system resources in the switch to optimize support for specific features, depending on how the switch is used in the network.
B. SDM templates are used to create Layer 3 interfaces (switch virtual interfaces) to permit hostsin one VLAN to communicate with hosts in another VLAN.
C. SDM templates are used to configure ACLs that protect networks and specific hosts from unnecessary or unwanted traffic.
D. SDM templates are used to configure a set of ACLs that allows the users tomanage the flow of traffic handled by the route processor.
E. SDM templates are configured by accessing the switch using the web interface.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 2
How does VTP pruning enhance network bandwidth?
A. by restricting unicast traffic across VTP domains
B. by reducing unnecessary flooding of traffic to inactive VLANs
C. by limitingthe spreading of VLAN information
D. by disabling periodic VTP updates
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 3
When using EtherChannel misconfiguration guard, which technology is used to prevent this type of misconfiguration from affecting the network?
A. STP
B. port security
C. LACP
D. PAgP
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 4
After anEtherChannel is configured between two Cisco switches, interface port channel 1 is in the down/down state.
Switch A is configured with channel-group 1 mode active, while Switch B is configured with channel-group 1 mode desirable.
Why is the EtherChannel bundle not working?
A. The switches are using mismatched EtherChannel negotiation modes.
B. The switch ports are not configured in trunking mode.
C. LACP priority must be configured on both switches.
D. The channel group identifier must be different for Switch A and Switch B.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 5
Which feature describes MAC addresses that are dynamically learned or manually configured, stored in theaddress table, and added to the running configuration?
A. sticky
B. dynamic
C. static
D. secure
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 6
Which database is used to determine the validity of an ARP packet based on a valid IP-to- MAC address binding? 300-115 dumps
A. DHCP snooping database
B. dynamic ARP database
C. dynamic routing database
D. static ARP database
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 7
A network engineer changed the port speed and duplex setting of an existing EtherChannel bundle that uses the PAgP protocol. Which statement describes what happens to all ports in the bundle?
A. PAgP changes the port speed and duplex for all ports in the bundle.
B. PAgP drops the ports that do not match the configuration.
C. PAgP does not change the port speed and duplex for all ports in the bundle until the switch is rebooted.
D. PAgP changes the port speed but notthe duplex for all ports in the bundle.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 8
You want to configure a switched internetwork with multiple VLANs as shown above. Which of the following commands should you issue on SwitchA for the port connected to SwitchB? (Select the best answer.)

A. switchport mode trunk
B. switchport access vlan 5
C. switchport mode access vlan 5
D. switchport trunk native vlan 5
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 9
Routers R1 and R2 are configured for HSRP as shown below:
Router R1: interface ethernet 0 ip address 20.6.2.1 255.255.255.0 standby 35 ip 20.6.2.21 standby 35 priority 100 interface ethernet 1 ip address 20.6.1.1.2 255.255.255.0 standby 34 ip 20.6.1.21 Router R2: interface ethernet 0 ip address 20.6.2.2 255.255.255.0 standby 35 ip 20.6.2.21 interface ethernet 1 ip address 20.6.1.1.1 255.255.255.0 standby 34 ip 20.6.1.21 standby 34 priority 100 You have configured the routers R1 andamp;R2 with HSRP. While debugging router R2 you notice very frequent HSRP group state transitions. What is the most likely cause of this?
A. physical layer issues
B. no spanning tree loops
C. use of non-default HSRP timers
D. failure to set the command standby 35 preempt
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 10
Which technique automatically limits VLAN traffic to only the switches that require it?
A. access lists
B. DTP in nonegotiate
C. VTP pruning
D. PBR
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 11
Which four LACP components are used to determine which hot-standby links become active after an interface failure within an EtherChannel bundle? (Choose four.)
A. LACP system priority
B. LACP port priority
C. interface MAC address
D. system ID
E. port number
F. hot-standby link identification number
G. interface bandwidth
Correct Answer: ABDE

QUESTION 12
Refer to the exhibit.

Which configuration ensures that the Cisco Discovery Protocol packet update frequency sent from DSW1 to ALS1 is half of the default value?
A. DSW1(config)#cdp timer 90
B. DSW1(config-if)#cdp holdtime 60
C. DSW1(config)#cdp timer 30
D. DSW1(config)#cdp holdtime 90
E. DSW1(config-if)#cdp holdtime 30
F. DSW1(config-if)#cdp timer 60
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 13
It a switch stack is configured to used SDM templates, where are the templates stored? 300-115 dumps
A. stack master
B. TFTP server
C. flash memory
D. all stack members
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 14
Ferris Plastics, Inc. is a medium sized company, with an enterprise network (access, distribution andcore switches) that provides LAN connectivity from user PCs to corporate servers. The distribution switches are configured to use HSRP to provide a high availability solution.
– DSW1 -primary device for VLAN 101 VLAN 102 and VLAN 105
– DSW2 – primarydevice for VLAN 103 and VLAN 104
A failure of GigabitEthemet1/0/1 on primary device should cause the primary device to release its status as the primary device, unless GigabitEthernet1/0/1 on backup device has also failed.
Troubleshooting hasidentified several issues. Currently all interfaces are up. Using the running configurations and show commands, you have been asked to investigate and respond to the following question.



During routine maintenance, it became necessary to shut down the GigabitEthernet1/0/1 interface on DSW1. All other interfaces were up. During this time, DSW1 remained the active device for the VLAN 102 HSRP group. You have determined that there is an issue with the decrement value in the track command for the VLAN102 HSRP group. What needs to be done to make the group function properly?
A. The decrement value on DSW1 should be greaterthan 5 and less than 15. 0
B. The decrement value on DSW1 should be greaterthan 9 and less than 15.
C. The decrement value on DSW1should be greaterthan 11 and less than 19.
D. The decrement value on DSWTs should be greaterthan 190 and less than 200.
E. The decrement value on DSWTs should be greaterthan 195 and less than 205.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 15
VLAN maps have been configured on switch R1. Which of the following actions are taken in a VLAN map that does not contain a match clause?
A. Implicit deny feature at end of list.
B. Implicit denyfeature at start of list.
C. Implicit forward feature at end of list
D. Implicit forward feature at start of list.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 16
Refer to the exhibit.

Users of PC-1 experience slow connection when a webpage is requested from the server. To increase bandwidth, the network engineer configured an EtherChannel on interfaces Fa1/0 and Fa0/1 of the server farm switch, as shown here:
Server_Switch#sh etherchannel load-balance
EtherChannel Load-Balancing Operational State (src-mac):
Non-IP: Source MAC address
IPv4: Source MAC address
IPv6: Source IP address
Server_Switch#
However,traffic is still slow. Which action can the engineer take to resolve this issue?
A. Disable EtherChannel load balancing.
B. Upgrade the switch IOS to IP services image.
C. Change the load-balance method to dst-mac.
D. Contact Cisco TAC to report a bug onthe switch.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 17
Which two statements about SPAN source and destination ports during an active session are true? 300-115 dumps (Choose two.)
A. The source port can be only an Ethernet physical port.
B. The source port can be monitored in multiple SPAN sessions.
C. Thedestination port can be destination in multiple SPAN sessions.
D. The destination port does not participate in STP.
E. You can mix individual source ports and source VLANs within a single session.
Correct Answer: BD

QUESTION 18
Which two statements about the HSRP priority are true? (Choose two)
A. To assign the HSRP router priority in a standby group, the standby group-number priority priority-value global configuration command must be used.
B. The default priority of a router is zero (0).
C. The no standby priority command assigns a priority of 100 to the router.
D. Assuming that preempting has also been configured, the router with the lowest priority in an HSRP group would become the active router.
E. When two routers in an HSRP standby group are configured with identical priorities, the router with the highest configured IP address will become the active router.
Correct Answer: CE

QUESTION 19
Refer to the exhibit.

Which statement about switch S1 is true?
A. Physical port Fa0/13, Fa0/14, and Fa0/15 successfully formed a Layer 2 port-channel interface using an open standard protocol.
B. Logical port Fa0/13, Fa0/14, and Fa0/15 successfully formed a Layer 2 physical port- channel interface using a Cisco proprietary protocol.
C. Physical port Fa0/13, Fa0/14, and Fa0/15 successfully formed a Layer 3 port-channel interface using a Cisco proprietary protocol.
D. Logical port Fa0/13, Fa0/14, and Fa0/15 successfully formed a Layer 3 physical port- channel interface using an open standard protocol.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 20
Refer to the exhibit. What is the result of setting GLBP weighting at 105 with lower threshold 90 and upper threshold 100 on this router?

A. Only if both tracked objects are up will this router will be available as an AVF for group 1.
B. Only if the state of both tracked objects goes down will this router release its status as an AVF for group 1.
C. If both tracked objects go down and then one comes up, but the other remains down, this router will be available as an AVF for group 1.
D. This configuration is incorrect and will not have any effect on GLBP operation.
E. If the state of one tracked object goes down then this router will release its status as an AVF for group 1.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 21
A network administrator configures 10 extended VLANs ranging from VLANs 3051 to 3060 in an enterprise network.
Which version of VTP supports these extended VLANs?
A. version 1
B. version 2
C. version 3
D. VTP does not recognize extended VLANs.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 22
What is the default HSRP priority?
A. 50
B. 100
C. 120
D. 1024
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 23
You have been asked to install and configure a new switch in a customer network. Use the console access to the existing and new switches to configure and verify correct device configuration.

ImageData src=”images/300-115_img_37.jpg”/>
ImageData src=”images/300-115_img_38.jpg”/>
You are adding new VLANs. VLAN500 and VLAN600 to thetopology in such way that you need to configure SW1 as primary root for VLAN 500 and secondary for
VLAN 600 and SW2 as primary root for VLAN 600 and secondary for VLAN 500.
Which configuration step is valid?
A. Configure VLAN 500 andamp; VLAN 600 on both SW1 andamp;SW2
B. Configure VLAN 500 and VLAN 600 on SW1 only
C. Configure VLAN 500 and VLAN 600 on SW2 only
D. Configure VLAN 500 and VLAN 600 on SW1 ,SW2 and SW4
E. On SW2; configure vtp mode as off and configure VLAN 500 and VLAN 600; configure back to vtp server mode.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 24
A network engineer is setting up a new switched network. The network is expected to grow and add many new VLANs in the future. Which Spanning Tree Protocol should be used to reduce switch resources and managerial burdens that are associated with multiple spanning-tree instances?
A. RSTP
B. PVST
C. MST
D. PVST+
E. RPVST+
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 25
Refer to the exhibit.

A network engineer wants to analyze all incoming and outgoing packets for an interface that is connected to an access switch. Which three items must be configured to mirror traffic to a packet sniffer that is connected to the distribution switch? (Choose three.)
A. A monitor session on the distribution switch with a physical interface as the source and the remote SPAN VLAN as the destination
B. A remote SPAN VLAN on the distribution and access layer switch
C. A monitor session on the accessswitch with a physical interface source and the remote SPAN VLAN as the destination
D. A monitor session on the distribution switch with a remote SPAN VLAN as the source and physical interface as the destination
E. A monitor session on the access switch with a remote SPAN VLAN source and the physical interface as the destination
F. A monitor session on the distribution switch with a physical interface as the source and a physical interface as the destination
Correct Answer: BCD

QUESTION 26
Refer to the exhibit

A network engineer changes the default native VLAN to VLAN 999. After applying the settings on theuplinks to the core switches, the switch control traffic, such as CDP and VTP, is no longer working. The standard configuration is used for each uplink. What is wrong with the configuration?
A. The interface is administratively down.
B. The encapsulationtype is incorrect.
C. The switchport mode trunk command should be first in the output.
D. The native VLAN is not present on the trunk.
E. The control traffic must be manually enabled on the new native VLAN.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 27
Which private VLAN access port belongs to the primary VLAN and can communicate with all interfaces,including the community and isolated host ports? 300-115 dumps
A. promiscuous port
B. isolated port
C. community port
D. trunk port
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 28
A network engineer notices inconsistent Cisco Discovery Protocol neighbors according to the diagram that is provided.
The engineer notices only a single neighbor that uses Cisco Discovery Protocol, but it has several routing neighbor relationships. What would cause the output to show only the single neighbor?
A. The routers are connected via a Layer 2 switch.
B. IP routing is disabled on neighboring devices.
C. Cisco Express Forwarding is enabled locally.
D. Cisco Discovery Protocol advertisements are inconsistent between the local and remote devices.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 29
A server with a statically assigned IP address is attached to a switch that is provisioned for DHCP snooping. For more protection against malicious attacks, the network team is considering enabling dynamic ARP inspection alongside DHCP snooping. Which solution ensures that the server maintains network reach ability in the future?
A. Disable DHCPsnooping information option.
B. Configure a static DHCP snooping binding entry on the switch.
C. Trust the interface that is connected to the server with the ip dhcp snooping trust command.
D. Verify the source MAC address of all untrusted interfaces withip dhcp snooping verify mac-address command.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 30
Which option describes a limitation of LLDP?
A. LLDP cannot provide information about VTP.
B. LLDP does not support TLVs.
C. LLDP can discover only Windows servers.
D. LLDP can discover up to two devices per port.
Correct Answer: A

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QUESTION 1
Which two statements about a transit AS are correct? (Choose two.)
A. A transit AS has eBGP connection(s) to only one external AS.
B. Routes between ASs are always exchanged via eBGP.
C. A transit AS uses an IGP like OSPF or ISIS to propagate the external networks within the transit AS.
D. Core routers within a transit AS normally use default routing to reach the external networks.
E. iBGP sessions can be established between non directly connected routers.
Correct Answer: BE

QUESTION 2
When using the show bgp ipv6 unicast summary command to verify the IPv6 BGP session status with the IPv6 BGP peers, you noticed the “St/PfxRcd” status for one of the IPv6 BGP peers is in the “Active” state. What does the “Active” state indicate?
A. The IPv6 BGP session has been established with the IPv6 BGP peer.
B. The router is in the process of sending BGP routing updates to the IPv6 BGP peer.
C. The router is in the process of establishing the IPv6 BGP session with the IPv6 BGP peer.
D. The router is exchanging BGP notification messages with its IPv6 BGP peer.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 3
When configuring IPv4 and IPv6 IS-IS routing on Cisco IOS XR routers, which three statements are correct? (Choose three.)
A. By default, a single SPF is used for both IPv4 and IPv6, so the IPv4 and IPv6 topology should be the same.
B. By default, the IS-IS router type is Level 1 and Level 2.
C. All IS-IS routers within the same IS-IS area must be configured with the same IS-IS routing process instance ID.
D. By default, metric-style narrow is used.
E. By default, the IS-IS interface circuit type is Level 1 and Level 2.
F. The area IS-IS address-family configuration command is used to specify the IS-IS area address.
Correct Answer: BDE

QUESTION 4
In which network environment is IS-IS adjacency check important? 642-883 dumps
A. in a multitopology environment where there are different instances of IS-IS running on the same router
B. in an IPv4/IPv6 environment and running single-topology IS-IS
C. when a level L1/L2 IS-IS router is neighboring with a Level 1 only or Level 2 only router
D. when IS-IS neighbors are in an NBMA environment like over Frame Relay
E. when IS-IS neighbors are in a broadcast environment like an Ethernet LAN
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 5
What is function of the RP/0/RSP0/CPU0:PE1(config-ospf)#distance Cisco IOS-XR command?
A. To modify the administrative distance of the OSPF routes
B. To modify the default seed metric of the OSPF external routes
C. To modify the OSPF default reference bandwidth
D. To modify the OSPF cost
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 6
Which of the following is a characteristic of dual-multihomed connectivity between an enterprise network and the service provider network or networks?
A. An enterprise network that is connected to two or more different service providers with two or more links per service provider and using BGP to exchange routing updates with the service providers.
B. Each service provider announces a default route on each of the links that connect to the customer with a different metric.
C. An enterprise network announces a default route to each service provider.
D. Load balancing can be achieved using the maximum-paths command.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 7
Refer to the exhibit.

R1 and XR2 cannot establish OSPF adjacency. Which option is the root cause of this issue?
A. stub flag mismatch
B. mismatched passwords
C. process ID mismatch
D. mismatched authentication types
E. MTU mismatch
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 8
Which three BGP configuration groupings are supported on Cisco IOS XR Software? 642-883 dumps (Choose three.)
A. peer-group
B. af-group
C. bgp-group
D. session-group
E. neighbor-group
F. as-group
Correct Answer: BDE

QUESTION 9
Which two features are specific only to Tier 3 providers? (Choose two.)
A. interconnects with Tier Level 1 and Tier Level 2 ISPs in public peering points
B. only purchases transit from other networks to reach the Internet
C. purchases transit and pays settlements to other service providers
D. uses strict route filtering to allow only customer and local routes to be sent to upstream providers
E. receives a full Internet routing table via BGP from its upstream provider, which it can use for loadbalancing traffic
Correct Answer: BD

QUESTION 10
A service provider is running BGP with clients at the edge of the network. The service provider sees that routing updates from one site are being dropped when the other site receives them.
Which feature fixes this issue?
A. EBGP multihop
B. inter-AS peering
C. AS-override
D. allow-AS in
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 11
What are two purposes of the BGP scan-time command? (Choose two.)
A. to tune the BGP process which walks the BGP table and confirms the reachability of next hops
B. to allow faster detection of downed BGP peers
C. to improve BGP convergence time
D. to tune the BGP update interval
E. to decrease the effects of unstable routes by increasing the route suppression time
Correct Answer: AC

QUESTION 12
When implementing OSPF, which type of networks require DR/BDR election?
A. point-to-point networks
B. mutli-access broadcast networks
C. non-broadcast multi-access networks (Hub and Spoke Frame Relay) using point-to-multipoint OSPF network type
D. All networks type
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 13
Refer to the exhibit.

XR1 must have XR4 as the primary exit point for only the first three subnets received from AS 100 and may not impact the rest of the subnets. Which configuration on XR1 is correct?
A. prefix-set PREFER
100.100.100.0/30 le 32
route-policy LP
if destination in PREFER then set local-preference 200 endif
B. route-policy LP
if destination in (100.100.100.0/30 le 32) then set local- preference 200 else pass endif
C. prefix-set PREFER
100.100.100.0/29 le 32
route-policy LP
if destination in PREFER then set local-preference 200 else pass endif
D. route-policy LP
if destination in (100.100.100.0/29 le 32) then set local preference 200 else set local-preference 100
endif
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 14
Which BGP attribute is a set of generic tags that can be used to signal various routing policies between BGP routers? 642-883 dumps
A. AS path
B. MED
C. weight
D. communities
E. route tags
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 15
Which reserved AS number or range of numbers is used for backward compatibility between old BGP peers using 16-bit AS number and new BGP peers using 32-bit AS number?
A. AS 65001 to 65535
B. AS 65512 to 65535
C. AS 12345
D. AS 23456
E. AS 64001
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 16
Which two OSPF network scenarios require OSPF virtual link configuration? (Choose two.)
A. to connect an OSPF non-backbone area to area 0 through another non-backbone area
B. to connect an NSSA area to an external routing domain
C. to connect two parts of a partitioned backbone area through a non-backbone area
D. to enable route leaking from Level 2 into Level 1
E. to enable route leaking from Level 1 into Level 2
F. to enable OSPF traffic engineering
Correct Answer: AC

QUESTION 17
Which value must be configured when redistributing OSPFv2 into RIP?
A. metric
B. bandwidth
C. delay
D. MTU
E. reliability
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 18
When troubleshooting OSPF neighbor errors, which three verification steps should be considered? (Choose three.)
A. Verify if neighboring OSPF interfaces are configured in the same area.
B. Verify if neighboring OSPF interfaces are configured with the same OSPF process ID.
C. Verify if neighboring OSPF interfaces are configured with the same OSPF priority.
D. Verify if neighboring OSPF interfaces are configured with the same hello and dead intervals.
E. Verify if neighboring OSPF interfaces are configured with the same area type.
Correct Answer: ADE

QUESTION 19
Which three statements are true regarding the OSPF router ID? 642-883 dumps (Choose three.)
A. The OSPF routing process chooses a router ID for itself when it starts up.
B. The router-id command is the preferred procedure to set the router ID.
C. If a loopback interface is configured, its address will always be preferred as the router ID over any other methods.
D. After the router ID is set, it does not change, even if the interface that the router is using for the router ID goes down. The router ID changes only if the router reloads or if the OSPF routing process restarts.
E. In OSPF version 3, the OSPF router ID uses a 128-bit number.
Correct Answer: ABD

QUESTION 20
What are two purposes of the BGP scan-time command? (Choose two.)
A. to tune the BGP process which walks the BGP table and confirms the reachability of next hops
B. to allow faster detection of downed BGP peers
C. to improve BGP convergence time
D. to tune the BGP update interval
E. to decrease the effects of unstable routes by increasing the route suppression time
Correct Answer: AC

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