December 22, 2024

Cisco

We share the latest exam dumps throughout the year to help you improve your skills and experience! The latest Cisco CCNP Collaboration 300-070 exam dumps, online exam Practice test to test your strength, Cisco 300-070 “Implementing Cisco IP Telephony & Video, Part 1 (CIPTV1)” in https://www.leads4pass.com/300-070.html Update the exam content throughout the year to ensure that all exam content is authentic and valid. 300-070 PDF Online download for easy learning.

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This exam tests learners for implementing a Cisco Unified Collaboration solution in a single-site environment. The exam focuses primarily on Cisco Unified Communications Manager.

Candidates will need to show they can configure Cisco Unified Communications Manager, implement gateways and Cisco Unified Border Element, and build dial plans to place on-net and off-net voice and video calls using traditional numbered dial plans and Uniform Resource Identifiers (URIs).

Candidates will also implement media resources, including voice and video conferences, and be able to describe how quality of service ensures that the network provides the required quality to voice and video calls.

Free test Cisco CCNP Collaboration 300-070 Exam questions and Answers

QUESTION 1
When comparing SIP H.323 and MGCP, which of the following is specific to SIP?
A. The dial plan is directly on the gateway.
B. SIP provides support for third-party entities.
C. SIP defines Translation per the gateway.
D. SIP has a centralized dial plan.
Correct Answer: B


QUESTION 2
Refer to the exhibit. Bob has set his phone to forward calls to extension 5000. When a call is placed to extension
2000,which phone will ring?leads4pass 300-070 exam question q2

A. Phone A
B. Phone B
C. Phone C
D. Phone D
Correct Answer: B


QUESTION 3
On Cisco Unified Communications Manager, where can you change the softkey templates from your IP phone?
A. Cisco Unified Communications Manager Serviceability > Device > Device Settings > Softkey Templates.
B. Cisco Unified Communications Manager Administration > Device > Device Settings > Softkey Templates.
C. Cisco Unified Communications Manager Administration > Device > Device Settings > Phone ButtonTemplate.
D. Cisco Unified Communications Manager Administration > Device > Device Settings > Device Defaults.
Correct Answer: B


QUESTION 4
Which two transcoder types does Cisco Unified Communications Manager support? (Choose two.)
A. IOS enhanced media termination point
B. Virtual media termination point
C. PLDM Termination Point
D. ISR termination point
E. Media termination point hardware
Correct Answer: AE


QUESTION 5
How are Cisco Unified CallManager location parameters used?
A. Assign directory numbers to devices as they connect to the IP telephony network.
B. Specify the bandwidth used for audio and video calls.
C. Implement call admission control in a centralized call processing deployment.
D. Provide alternate call routing when the primary call path is unavailable.
Correct Answer: C


QUESTION 6
How does Cisco Unified Border Element attach recorder profiles for media forking?
A. codec configuration
B. dial peers
C. SIP trunks
D. CTI integration
Correct Answer: B


QUESTION 7
Which two options describe how the Cisco Unified Communications Manager Auto-Register Phone Tool updates auto-
registering IP phones? (Choose two.)
A. An administrator can schedule when auto-registered phones can dial in to the Cisco Unified Communications
Manager Auto-Register Phone Tool directory number.
B. A new phone can dial in to the Cisco Unified Communications Manager Auto-Register Phone Tool directory number
to manage the device user profile.
C. A new phone can dial in to the Cisco Unified Communications Manager Auto-Register Phone Tool directory number
to update its MAC address in Cisco Unified Communications Manager and download the correct configuration file
D. A replacement phone can dial in to the Cisco Unified Communications Manager Auto-Register Phone Tool directory
number to register with Cisco Unified Communications Manager.
E. A replacement phone can dial in to the Cisco Unified Communications Manager Auto-Register Phone Tool directory
number to download the configuration for the phone it replaces.
Correct Answer: CE


QUESTION 8
Which wildcard character in a route pattern can be used to match to one or more digits in the range 0 through 9?
A. +
B. X
C. !
D. ?
Correct Answer: C


QUESTION 9
Which Cisco Unified Communications Manager menu path is used to access the softkey template configuration
window?
A. Device > Device Settings > Softkey Templates
B. Device Settings > Softkey Templates
C. IP Phone > Template > Softkey
D. Device > IP Phone > Template > Softkey
Correct Answer: A


QUESTION 10
Which three options are types of media resources in CUCM? (Choose three.)
A. Music on hold
B. H.323 trunk
C. Media Termination Point
D. Meet-Me Conference
E. SIP trunk
F. Transcoder
Correct Answer: ACF


QUESTION 11
Which three options are valid SIP URI formats? (Choose three.)
A. [email protected]
B. tel:[email protected]
C. phone:[email protected]
D. sip:[email protected]:5060;user=phone
E. sip:bob.cisco.com
Correct Answer: ABD


QUESTION 12
Which three options are components of Media Resources Architecture? (Choose three.)
A. Music on hold
B. Media Resource Manager
C. Media Resource Group
D. Route list
E. Route group
F. Media Resource Group List
Correct Answer: BCF


QUESTION 13
Which two options can a route pattern be assigned? (Choose two.)
A. a gateway that is not assigned to a route group
B. a gateway that is assigned to a route group
C. a route list with no route groups configured
D. a route list with one or more route groups configured
Correct Answer: AD

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Free test Cisco CCNA Cyber Ops 210-255 Exam questions and Answers

QUESTION 1
What is the common artifact that is used to uniquely identify a detected file?
A. Hash
B. Timestamp
C. File size
Correct Answer: A


QUESTION 2
Which CVSSv3 Attack Vector metric value requires the attacker to physically touch or manipulate the vulnerable
component?
A. local
B. physical
C. network
D. adjacent
Correct Answer: B


QUESTION 3
Which element is included in an incident response plan?
A. organization mission
B. junior analyst approval
C. day-to-day firefighting
D. siloed approach to communications
Correct Answer: A


QUESTION 4
Which of the following is an example of a managed security offering where incident response experts monitor and
respond to security alerts in a security operations center (SOC)?
A. Cisco CloudLock
B. Cisco\\’s Active Threat Analytics (ATA)
C. Cisco Managed Firepower Service
D. Cisco Jasper
Correct Answer: B


QUESTION 5
Which option is unnecessary for determining the appropriate containment strategy according to NIST.SP800-61 r2?
A. effectiveness of the strategy
B. time and resource needed to implement the strategy
C. need for evidence preservation
D. attack vector used to compromise the system
Correct Answer: D


QUESTION 6
Which CVSSv3 metric value increases when the attacker is able to modify all files protected by the vulnerable
component?
A. confidentiality
B. integrity
C. availability
D. complexity
Correct Answer: B


QUESTION 7
Which of the following is true about attribution in a cybersecurity investigation?
A. A suspect-led approach is often accepted in supreme courts.
B. A suspect-led approach is pejorative and often biased to the disadvantage of those being investigated.
C. A suspect-led approach is mostly used in corporate investigations.
D. A suspect-led approach is mostly used in private investigations.
Correct Answer: B


QUESTION 8
Which component of the NIST SP800-61 r2 incident handling strategy reviews data?
A. preparation
B. detection and analysis
C. containment, eradication, and recovery
D. post-incident analysis
Correct Answer: D


QUESTION 9
Refer to the Exhibit. A customer reports that they cannot access your organization\\’s website. Which option is a
possible reason that the customer cannot access the website?leads4pass 210-255 exam question q9

A. The server at 10.33.1.5 is using up too much bandwidth causing a denial- of-service.
B. The server at 10.67.10.5 has a virus.
C. A vulnerability scanner has shown that 10.67.10.5 has been compromised.
D. Web traffic sent from 10.67.10.5 has been identified as malicious by Internet sensors.
Correct Answer: D


QUESTION 10
Which analyzing technique describe the outcome as well as how likely each outcome is?
A. deterministic
B. exploratory
C. probabilistic
D. descriptive
Correct Answer: C


QUESTION 11
Which network device creates and sends the initial packet of a session?
A. source
B. origination
C. destination
D. network
Correct Answer: A


QUESTION 12
At which stage attacking the vulnerability belongs in Cyber kill chain?
A. Exploitation
B. Reconnaissance
C. Weaponization
D. Delivery
E. Installation
F. Command and control (C2)
G. Actions on objectives
Correct Answer: A


QUESTION 13
Which element can be used by a threat actor to discover a possible opening into a target network and can also be used
by an analyst to determine the protocol of the malicious traffic?
A. TTLs
B. ports
C. SMTP replies
D. IP addresses
Correct Answer: B

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The latest Cisco CCIE 400-101 exam dumps and exercises test questions and answers, These free exercises will help you improve 400-101 CCIE Routing and Switching test skills, We share 400-101 pdf for free to download and learn, and you can also watch 400-101 YouTube videos online! We share 40 real effective exam questions and answers for free if you want to get the full 400-101 exam dumps: https://www.leads4pass.com/400-101.html (Total questions:283 Q&A)->> updated throughout the year! Make sure you pass the exam easily!

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Latest effective Cisco 400-101 Exam Practice Tests

QUESTION 1
Which three message type are used for prefix delegation in DHCPv6?(Choose threE.
A. Solicit
B. Renew
C. Advertise
D. DHCP Discover
E. DHCPAck
F. DHCP Offer
Correct Answer: ABC


QUESTION 2
Which option describes how a VTPv3 device responds when it detects a VTPv2 device on a trunk port?
A. It sends VTPv2 packets only
B. It sends a Special packet that contains VTPv3 and VTPv2 packets information.
C. It sends VTPv3 packets only.
D. It sends VTPv3 and VTPv2 packets.
Correct Answer: D


QUESTION 3

leads4pass 400-101 exam question - q1

Refer to exhibit. Which statement is true about a valid IPv6 address that can be configured on tunnel interface0 ?
A. 2001:7DCB:5901::/128 is a valid IPv6 address
B. 6to4 tunneling allows you to use any IPv6 address
C. 2002:7DCB:5901::/128 is a valid IPV6 address
D. There is not enough information to calculate the IPv6 address
Correct Answer: C


QUESTION 4
Which statement about passive interfaces is true?
A. The interface with the IS-IS passive interface configuration sends the IP address of that interface in the link-state
protocol data units
B. The interface with the EIGRP passive interface configuration ignores routes after the exchange of hello packets.
C. The interface with the OSPF passive interface configuration appears as a not-so-stubby network.
D. Passive interface can be configured on the interface for IS-IS.
Correct Answer: A


QUESTION 5
Which two protocols exclude the source and destination IPaddresses from the application data stream?
(Choose two)
A. TFTP
B. NTP
C. SMTP
D. SSH
E. SNMP
Correct Answer: BC


QUESTION 6
From which component does an IS-IS router construct its link-state database?
A. LSAs
B. Hello packets
C. LSPs
D. SPTs
Correct Answer: C


QUESTION 7
R1#sh ip eigrp top all IP-EIGRP Topology Table for AS (192.168.13.1) Codes: P – Passive, A – Active, U – Update, Q-
Query, R – Reply, r – reply Status, s – sia Status P 10.0.0.0/8, 1 successors, FD is 3586560, serno 8 via 192.168.1.5
(3586560/3074560), Serial0/0 P 192.168.100.0/24, 2 successors, FD is 409600, serno 5 via 192.168.13.3
(409600/128256), FastEthernet0/1 via 192.168.12.3 (435200/409600), FastEthernet0/0
Refer to the exhibit. Which statements about the 192.168.100.0/24 destination network is true?
A. The metric installed into the route table is 128256
B. The Reported Distance for the Feasible Successor is 409600
C. The metric installed into the route table is 435200
D. The Reported Distance for the Successor is 128256
Correct Answer: D


QUESTION 8
Which two solutions can reduce UDP latency? (Choose two)
A. low-latency queuing
B. congestion-avoidance algorithm
C. fast retransmission
D. IP service level agreements
E. fast start
F. fast recovery
Correct Answer: AD


QUESTION 9
Which statements about PMTUD is true?
A. GRE tunnels use PMTUD to fragment data packets by default.
B. It increases the connection\\’s send MSS value to prevent fragmentation.
C. It is used to prevent fragmentation of packets at the endpoint of a TCP connection
D. It is supported by TCP and UDP
E. It is used to prevent fragmentation of packets traveling across a smaller MTU link between
Correct Answer: E


QUESTION 10
Which two statements about OSPFv3 are true? (Choose two.)
A. lt supports the use of a cluster ID for loop prevention.
B. It supports unicast address families for IPv6 only.
C. lt supports unicast address families for 1Pv4 and 1Pv6
D. lt supports only one address family per instance.
E. It supports multicast address families for 1Pv4
F. lt supports multicast address families for 1Pv6
Correct Answer: CD


QUESTION 11
Which two statements about SSM are true? (Choose two)
A. It requires IGMPv3 for source filtering.
B. It can work in conjunction with the ISM service.
C. It uses the group address range 233.0.0.0 – 233.255.255.255 by default
D. It is designed to support many-to-many applications within a PIM domain.
E. It uses (*, G) multicast routing entries to make forwarding decisions.
Correct Answer: AB


QUESTION 12
An NSSA area has two ABRs connected to Area 0. Which statement is true?
A. Both ABRs translate Type-7 LSAs to Type-5 LSAs
B. The ABR with the highest router ID translates Type-7 LSAs to Type-5 LSAs
C. No LSA translation is needed
D. Both ABRs forward Type-5 LSAs from the NSSA area to backbone area
Correct Answer: B


QUESTION 13
Which three statements correctly describe the encoding used by NETCONF and RESTCONF? (Choose three)
A. RESTCONF uses JSON-encoded data
B. RESTCONF uses YAML-encoded data
C. RESTCONF uses XML-encoded data
D. NETCONF uses JSON-encoded data
E. NETCONF uses YAML-encoded data
F. NETCONF uses XML-encoded data
Correct Answer: ACF


QUESTION 14leads4pass 400-101 exam question - q14Refer to the exhibit. The route-map wau2sitc is being used for redistributing BGP routes into the eigrp 28 process.
Which option best describes the resulting redistribution of routes?
A. The deny, sequence 5 is preventing any routes from and a lag
B. A default routes is being redistributed with a metric and a tag
C. all routes are being redistributed with a metric and a tag
D. policy routing matches: 0 packets means that there are no matches and no routes are being redistributed
Correct Answer: A


QUESTION 15
Which two statement about VPLS are true? (Choose two)
A. Split horizon is used on PE devices to prevent loops.
B. IP is used to switch Ethernet frames between sites.
C. Spanning tree is extended from CE to CE
D. VPLS extends a layer 2 broadcast domain.
E. PE routers dynamic associate to peers.
Correct Answer: AD


QUESTION 16
Which two statements about IS-IS authentication are true ?(Choose two.)
A. Level 2 LSPs transmit the password encrypted inside the IS-IS PDU.
B. Area and domain authentication must be configured together.
C. Passwords can be configured on a per-interface basis.
D. If LSP authentication is in use , unauthorized devices can form neighbor adjacencies.
E. Lever 1 LSPs use the domain password.
Correct Answer: AC


QUESTION 17
Refer to the exhibit.

leads4pass 400-101 exam question - q17

If the route to 10.1.1.1 is removed from the R2 routing table, which server becomes the master NTP server?
A. R2
B. the NTP server at 10.3.3.3
C. the NTP server at 10.4.4.4
D. the NTP server with the lowest stratum number
Correct Answer: D


QUESTION 18leads4pass 400-101 exam question - q18Refer to the exhibit. Which two effects of this configuration are true? (Choose two)
A. The priority queue is disabled
B. Queue 1 is served twice as fast as queue 2
C. Queue 1 is a priority queue that is allocated 1/3 of the available bandwidth
D. Queue 2 is served twice as fast as queue 1
E. Queue 1 is a priority queue that is allocated 2/3 of the available bandwidth
F. Queue 1 is allocated 2 percent of the available bandwidth and queue 2 is allocated 2 percent of the available
bandwidth
Correct Answer: AB


QUESTION 19
What are three of the key fields that define a unique NetFlow flow ( choose three)
A. Source MAC address
B. Cyclic Redundancy Check
C. Layer 3 protocol type
D. Type of service
E. Input logical interface
F. Canonical Format Identifier
Correct Answer: CDE


QUESTION 20
Which three technologies can be used to implement redundancy for IPv6? (Choose three.
A. IPv6 NA
B. NHRP
C. HSRP
D. DVMRP
E. GLBP
F. IPv6 RA
Correct Answer: CEF


QUESTION 21
Which three pieces of information are carried on OSPF type-3 LSAs? (Choose three
A. metric
B. link state
C. subnet mask
D. IP subnet
E. authentication type
F. external route tag
Correct Answer: ABC


QUESTION 22
Which two operating modes does VPLS support? (Choose two)
A. Transport mode
B. Loose mode
C. VLAN mode
D. Strict mode
E. Port mode
F. Dynamic mode
Correct Answer: CE


QUESTION 23
Which IP SLA operation type is enhanced by lhe use of the IP SL.As Responder?
A. ICMP Echo
B. UDP Echo
C. DNS
D. HTTP
Correct Answer: B


QUESTION 24
Which two values are required to implement an EIGRP named configurations? (Choose two)
A. address-family
B. virtual-instance-name
C. subnet-mask
D. router-id
E. process-id
Correct Answer: AB


QUESTION 25
Which option is the Cisco recommended method to secure access to the console port?
A. Set the privilege level to a value less than 15
B. Configure a very short timeout (less than 100 milliseconds) for the port
C. Configure the activation-character command
D. Configure an ACL
Correct Answer: C


QUESTION 26
When you implement PIR, which IP SLA probes is used to determine the MOS?
A. throughput
B. jitter
C. latency
D. packet loss
Correct Answer: B


QUESTION 27
Refer To the exhibit.leads4pass 400-101 exam question - q27

When pockets are transmitted from r1 to r2, where are they encrypted?
A. on the EO/0 interface on R1
B. on the outside interface
C. in the forwarding engine
D. in the tunnel
E. within the crypto map
F. on the EO/1 interface on R2
Correct Answer: A


QUESTION 28
Refer to the exhibit. Which statement correctly describes the output?leads4pass 400-101 exam question - q28

A. This router runs NTPv6
B. This router runs OSPFv3 and is not a DR
C. A directly connected router on another interface than this one will be able to successfully ping the link local address
of Gi2/0
D. This router runs EIGRpv6
Correct Answer: B


QUESTION 29
which two conditions are required for tracking the interface IP routing state?(choose two)
A. The interface line protocol must be up
B. Cisco Express Forwarding must be disable on the interface
C. A VRF must be enabled on the interface
D. A known IP address must be configured on the interface
E. IP routing must be disabled on the interface
Correct Answer: AD


QUESTION 30
How long will the root bridge continue to send configuration BPDUs to notify all bridges to age out their MAC address
tables?
A. The max-age time
B. The forward delay + max-age time
C. The forward delay time
D. Three times the hello interval
Correct Answer: B


QUESTION 31
Which three options are the main security features in SNMPv3? (Choose three)
A. authentication
B. MIB persistence
C. message integrity
D. authorization
E. encryption
F. accounting
Correct Answer: ACE


QUESTION 32
Which statement about Cisco Express Forwarding is true
A. The FIB tables resides on the route processor and the adjacency table resides on the line cards when Cisco Express
Forwarding is enabled.
B. Layer 2 next-hop address information is maintained in the adjacency table.
C. The FIB table and the adjacency table reside on the line cards when Cisco Express Forwarding is enabled.
D. Layer 2 next-hop address information is maintained in the FIB table.
Correct Answer: A


QUESTION 33
Company A have two remote sites, which are connected to a common ISP by BGP. At each site, company A is using
the same autonomous system number. Which BGP feature can you implement to enable routing between the two site?
A. allowas-in
B. AS path prepending
C. communities
D. peer groups
Correct Answer: A


QUESTION 34
Which three criteria are used for stackwise election of a master switch?
A. lowest MAC address
B. Vl.AN revision number
C. longest uptime
D. user-selected priority
E. highest MAC address
F. IOS version number
Correct Answer: ACD


QUESTION 35
External EIGRP route exchange on routers R1 and R2 was failing because the routers had duplicate router IDs.
You changed the eigrp router-id command on R1, but the problem persists. Which additional action must you take to
enable the routers to exchange routes?
A. Clear the EIGRP process
B. Change the router ID on R2.
C. Reset the EIGRP neighbor relationship.
D. Change the corresponding loopback address.
Correct Answer: A


QUESTION 36
Refer to the exhibit.leads4pass 400-101 exam question - q36Which two statements about the given NetFlow configuration are true?(Choose two)
A. It supports both IPv4 and IPv6 flows.
B. It uses the default port to send flows to the exporter.
C. It supports only IPv6 flows.
D. It supports only IPv4 flows.
E. It supports a maximum of 2048 entres.
Correct Answer: BD


QUESTION 37
Which command can you enter to allow a multicast-enabled router to advertise itself to the BSR router as PIMv2 c-RP?
A. ip pim autorp listener
B. ip pim send-rp-announce
C. ip pim rp-candidate
D. ip pim rp-address
E. ip pim send-rp- discovery
Correct Answer: C


QUESTION 38leads4pass 400-101 exam question - q38How can you configure this network so that customers can transparently extend their networks through the provider?
A. Configure eBGP peering among the CE routers
B. Configure OSPF peering between the CE and PE routers.
C. Configure eBGP peering between the CE and PE routers
D. Configure EIGRP OTP on the CE routers.
Correct Answer: D


QUESTION 39
Refer to the exhibit.leads4pass 400-101 exam question - q39Which BGP feature is being used?
A. graceful shutdown
B. graceful restart
C. PIC
D. fast session deactivation
Correct Answer: D


QUESTION 40
Refer to the exhibit.leads4pass 400-101 exam question - q40When it attempted to register the EEM script, the device returned this error message. Which action can you take to
correct the problem?
A. Configure the end command at the end of the BACKUP EEM policy
B. Configure the event none command so that the event can be triggered manually
C. Configure the event action to run the applet
D. Configure the event manager run command to register the event
Correct Answer: C

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Latest effective Cisco 400-051 Exam Practice Tests

QUESTION 1
Refer to the exhibit.leads4pass 400-051 exam question-q1 Cisco unity connection site A has two locations and Cisco Unity connection Site B has one Location. Which protocol
connect the location and servers together for messaging and replication?
A. 1 SMTP 2 – HTTP/HTTPS, SMTP 3 None
B. 1 HTTP/HTTPS, SMTP 2 SMTP 3 None
C. 1 – HTTP/HTTPS, SMTP 2 – HTTP/HTTPS, SMTP 3 – HTTP/HTTPS, SMTP
D. 1 SMTP 1 SMTP 1 SMTP
Correct Answer: A


QUESTION 2
Refer to the exhibit.leads4pass 400-051 exam question-q2

A customer has two Cisco Unified Communication manager 9.X clusters that serve the same location. An engineer has
attempted to set up Enhanced Location call admission control so that any call within a site between phones on the two
clusters do not decrement the available bandwidth to and from that site. However, the real time monitoring tool currently
shows bandwidth being used from the site to Hub_none. When a call is placed between phones at the site, which action
must be taken to correct this situation?
A. The link between clusters must be a type of inter-cluster trunk instead of a sip trunk.
B. The hub_none location must have a link configuration to the phantom location.
C. The device pool names must match between clusters.
D. The Hub_none location must have a link configured to the shadow location.
E. The SIP trunks should be changed to use the shadow location.
Correct Answer: E


QUESTION 3
Assume a 30-millisecond voice payload, 6 bytes for the Layer 2 header, 1 byte for the end- of-frame flag, and the IP,
UDP, and RTP headers are compressed to 2 bytes, how much bandwidth should be allocated to the strict priority queue
for eight VoIP calls that use a
A. 729 codec over a multilink PPP link with cRTP enabled?
B. 121.6 kb/s
C. 92.8 kb/s
D. 88.4 kb/s
E. 83.2 kb/s
F. 78.4 kb/s
Correct Answer: D
Reference: http://www.cisco.com/en/US/tech/tk652/tk698/technologies_tech_note09186a0080094ae2.shtml


QUESTION 4
In Cisco IOS routers that use low latency queuing, which algorithm is used to presort traffic going into the default
queue?
A. first-in, first-out
B. last-in, first-out
C. weighted round robin
D. fair queuing E. random processing
Correct Answer: D
WFQ is a flow-based queuing algorithm used in Quality of Service (QoS) that does two things simultaneously: It
schedules interactive traffic to the front of the queue to reduce response time, and it fairly shares the remaining
bandwidth between high bandwidth flows. A stream of packets within a single session of a single application is known
as flow or conversation. WFQ is a flow-based method that sends packets over the network and ensures packet
transmission efficiency which is critical to the interactive traffic. This method automatically stabilizes network congestion
between individual packet transmission flows.


QUESTION 5
Refer to the exhibit.leads4pass 400-051 exam question-q5Which ds0-group option should you select to support automated number identification information collection on inbound
calls for this digital T1 voice circuit?
A. eandm-wink-start
B. eandm-delay-dial
C. eandm-delay-dial
D. eandm-lmr
E. eandm-fgd
Correct Answer: E
Because it can receive ANI information and sends DNIS info. But can\\’t send ANI.
Reference:
http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/ios-xml/ios/voice/isdn/configuration/15-mt/vi-15-mt- book/vi-imp-t1cas-voip.html


QUESTION 6
Which configuration parameter defines whether or not the user portion of a directory URI is case sensitive on Cisco
Unified Communications Manager 9.1 or later?
A. URI Dialing Display Preference in Cisco CallManager Service Parameter
B. URI Lookup Policy in Cisco CallManager Service Parameter
C. URI Dialing Display Preference in Enterprise Parameters
D. URI Lookup Policy in Enterprise Parameters
E. The user portion of a directory URI is always case sensitive and cannot be changed.
Correct Answer: D
Explanation: Cisco Unified Communications Manager supports the following formats in the user portion of a directory
URI (the portion before the @ symbol):
Accepted characters are a-z, A-Z, 0-9, !, $, %, and, *, _, +, ~, -, =, \, ?, \, `, ,, ., /. The user portion has a maximum length
of 47 characters. The user portion accepts percent encoding from %2[0-9A-F] through %7[0-9A-F]. For some accepted
characters, Unified CM automatically applies percent encoding. See below for more information on percent encoding.
The user portion is case-sensitive or case-insensitive depending on the value of the URI Lookup Policy enterprise
parameter. The default value is case-sensitive.
Reference:
http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/voice_ip_comm/cucm/bat/9_1_1/CUCM_BK_C271A6 9D_00_cucm-bulk-
administration-guide-91/CUCM_BK_C271A69D_00_cucm-bulk- administration-guide-91_chapter_01001110.html


QUESTION 7
Which two call processing features have a lower priority than the Do Not Disturb settings on a Cisco IP phone? (Choose
two.)
A. park reversion for a locally parked call
B. hold reversion
C. intercom
D. pickup notification
E. terminating side of a call back
F. originating side of a call back
Correct Answer: DE
For the DND Ringer Off option, only visual notification gets presented to the device. For the DND Call Reject option, no
notification gets presented to the device. For the terminating side of the call, Do Not Disturb overrides call back:
When the phone that terminates the call uses DND Ringer Off, the Callback Available screen will be displayed on the
phone after the terminating side goes off hook and on hook.
When the phone that terminates the call has DND Call Reject enabled but the phone becomes available (goes off hook
and on hook), a new screen will be presented to the originating device as ” has become available but is on
DND-R”. Callback available notification will be sent only after the terminating side disables DND Call Reject.


QUESTION 8
Your customer reported that the Sync Agent service failed to start after a reinstallation of a Cisco this problem after you
review these customer logs?
A. Add “appadmin” application user in Cisco UCM and IM and Presence
B. Add “appadmin” application user in Ciscon IM and Presence
C. Add “appaduser” application user in Cisco UCM
D. Add “appadmin” application user in Cisco UCM
E. Add “appaduser” application user in Cisco UCM and IM and Presence
Correct Answer: D


QUESTION 9
What is the maximum delay requirement, in milliseconds, for deploying Cisco Unity Connection servers in active/active
pairs over different sites?
A. 150
B. 200
C. 100
D. 250
Correct Answer: C


QUESTION 10
Which option describes how you can show the same contacts in your Jabber for Windows on-premise client as you do
on the corporate directory of your IP phone?
A. Switch your Jabber client to use UDS instead of EDI.
B. Switch your Jabber client to use EDI instead of UDS.
C. Update your IMandP server to sync off of the same LDAP directory as your Cisco Unified Communications Manager.
D. Add Jabber to your inbound/outbound firewall rules on your PC.
E. Jabber can only pull directly from LDAP and cannot directly search the Cisco Unified Communications Manager user
database.
Correct Answer: A
LDAP contact resolution — The client cannot use LDAP for contact resolution when outside of the corporate firewall.
Instead, the client must use UDS for contact resolution. When users are inside the corporate firewall, the client can use
either
UDS or LDAP for contact resolution. If you deploy LDAP within the corporate firewall, Cisco recommends that you
synchronize your LDAP directory server with Cisco Unified Communications Manager to allow the client to connect with
UDS when users are outside the corporate firewall.
Reference:
http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/voice_ip_comm/jabber/Windows/9_7/JABW_BK_C4 C679C9_00_cisco-jabber-for-
windows-97/JABW_BK_C4C679C9_00_cisco-jabber-for- windows-97_chapter_0111.html#CJAB_CN_C2733196_00


QUESTION 11
Where can a Cisco Unified CM administrator define Call Detail Records data collection interval (Choose two.)
A. Cisco Unified Reporting
B. Cisco Unified CM Administration Enterprise Parameters
C. Cisco Unified Serviceability
D. Cisco Unified CM Administration Service Parameters
E. Call Detail Records data collection interval is not a configurable parameter.
Correct Answer: B


QUESTION 12
A collaboration engineer configures Cisco Unified CM location using G.711 and iLBC for each site. The bandwidth for
each link is shown. Which two options represent the maximum concurrent number of calls supported by grand junction
to Casper for each Codec? (Choose two.)
A. 20 G.711 calls
B. 18 G.711 calls
C. 36 iLBC calls
D. 42 iLBC calls
E. 11 G.711 calls
F. 51 iLBC calls
Correct Answer: CE


QUESTION 13
Which procedure uses H.225 messages to exchange H.245 Master-Salve Determination information?
A. H.323 early media
B. H.245 terminal capability set
C. H 225 tunneling
D. H.245 tunneling
E. H.323 Fast Connect
Correct Answer: D


QUESTION 14
Which statement about high availability for XMPP federation in Cisco IM and Presence is true?
A. A maximum of two Cisco IM and Presence nodes can be enabled for XMPP federation.
B. Cisco IM and Presence load balances outbound requests across all nodes that are enabled for XMPP federation.
C. Cisco IM and Presence load balances outbound requests across both nodes that are enabled for XMPP federation in
a subcluster.
D. The XMPP federation-enabled nodes should have different priorities and weights on the published DNS SRV for
proper inbound request node selection.
E. A single DNS SRV record that resolves to an XMPP federation-enabled node must be published on a public DNS
server for inbound request routing.
Correct Answer: B
High availability for XMPP federation differs from the high availability model for other IM and Presence Service features
because it is not tied to the two node sub-cluster model. To provide high availability for XMPP federation, you must
enable two or more IM and Presence Service nodes in your cluster for XMPP federation; having multiple nodes enabled
for XMPP federation not only adds scale but it also provides redundancy in the event that any node fails.


QUESTION 15leads4pass 400-051 exam question-q15

An IT engineer upgraded Cisco Unified Communications Manager to version 9.1.2. When accessing CLI of the server,
this output is displayed.
Which three actions must be taken to correct this issue? (Choose Three)
A. From the recovery disk menu options, select option [F] to check and correct disk file system
B. Login to DRS and perform Cisco Unified CM restore from the backup
C. From the recovery disk menu option, select option [Q] to quit recovery program and reboot the virtual machine
D. Download Cisco unified CM recovery iso, boot the virtual machine from it and verify disk partitioning layout
E. Create a new virtual machine from Cisco ova template and create a fresh install with the Cisco Unified CM bootable
iso
F. Take the backup of the system with disaster recovery system
G. From the recovery disk menu options, select option [A] to align the partitions of the virtual machines
Correct Answer: BEF


QUESTION 16
A user has reported that when trying to access Visual Voicemail the following error is received
“Unable to open application. Please try again later. If it continues to fail contact your administrator”. The collaboration
engineer is working on the problem found on the following phone logs:
CVMInstallerModule STATUS_install_cancelled
STATUS_INSTALL)_ERROR [thread=installer MQThread][class=cip midp midletsuite installerModule][function=update
status] Midlet install Canceled/ERROR…visual
Voicemail
How can this issue be resolved?
A. Replace the sever name with the server IP on service URL field
B. Eliminate the space in the service Name field
C. Configure DNS on phone configuration so it can resolve server name
D. Check the Enable checkbox on IP phone service configuration
Correct Answer: B


QUESTION 17
Which Cisco IM and Presence service is responsible for logging all IM traffic that passes through the IM and Presence
server to an external database for IM compliance?
A. Cisco Presence Engine
B. Cisco Serviceability Reporter
C. Cisco Sync Agent
D. Cisco XCP Connection Manager
E. Cisco XCP Message Archiver
Correct Answer: E
The Cisco Unified Presence XCP Message Archiver service supports the IM Compliance feature. The IM Compliance
feature logs all messages sent to and from the Cisco Unified Presence server, including point-to-point messages, and
messages from adhoc (temporary) and permanent chat rooms for the Chat feature. Messages are logged to an external
Cisco-supported database.


QUESTION 18
Exhibit:leads4pass 400-051 exam question-q18Which two phone security functions are available to this Cisco IP phone? (Choose two.)
A. Default Authentication of TFTP downloaded files using a signing key
B. Encryption of TFTP configuration files using a signing key
C. Encrypted call signalling but unencrypted call media
D. Encrypted call media but unencrypted call signalling
E. Encrypted call signalling and media
F. Local trust verification on the
Correct Answer: AB


QUESTION 19
A CUCM engineer has deployed Type B SIP Phones on a remote site and no SIP dial rules were deployed for these
phones. How Will CUCM receive the DTMF after the phone goes off- hook and the button are pressed?
A. Each digit will be received by CUCM in a SIP NOTIFY message as soon as they are pressed
B. The first digit will be received in a sip invite and subsequent digits will be received using NOTIFY message as soon
as they are pressed.
C. Each digit bill be received by CUCM in a SIP INVITE as soon as the dial soft key has been pressed.
D. All digits will be received by CUCM in a SIP INVITE as soon as the dial soft key has been pressed
Correct Answer: A
Type-B IP telephones offer functionality based on the Key Press Markup Language (KPML) to report user key presses.
Each one of the user input events will generate its own KPML-based message to Unified CM. From the standpoint of
relaying each user action immediately to Unified CM, this mode of operation is very similar to that of phones running
SCCP.leads4pass 400-051 exam question-q19Every user key press triggers a SIP NOTIFY message to Unified CM to report a KPML event corresponding to the key
pressed by the user. This messaging enables Unified CM\\’s digit analysis to recognize partial patterns as they are
composed by the user and to provide the appropriate feedback, such as immediate reorder tone if an invalid number is
being dialed.
In contrast to Type-A IP phones running SIP without dial rules, Type-B SIP phones have no Dial key to indicate the end
of user input. A user dialing 1000 would be provided call progress indication (either ringback tone or reorder tone) after
dialing the last 0 and without having to press the Dial key. This behavior is consistent with the user interface on phones
running the SCCP protocol.
http://www.cisco.com/en/US/docs/voice_ip_comm/cucm/srnd/5x/50dialpl.html#wp1090653
https://supportforums.cisco.com/document/87236/working-concept-sccp-sip-phones-and-dial-rules


QUESTION 20
Which Cisco Unified CM Application user is created by default and used by Cisco Unified CM Extension Mobility?
A. CCMAdministrator
B. EMSysUser
C. TabSyncSysUser
D. CCMSysUser
E. CTIGWUser
Correct Answer: D


QUESTION 21
Which design restriction applies to Cisco Unified Communications Manager Session Management Edition clustering
over the WAN deployment with extended round-trip times in Cisco Unified CM 9.1 and later releases?
A. SIP and H.323 intercluster trunks are supported.
B. Only SIP trunk is supported.
C. SIP trunks and H.323 gateways are supported.
D. A minimum of 1.544 Mb/s bandwidth is required for all traffic between any two nodes in the cluster.
E. Only RSVP agents can be configured and registered to the SME cluster as media resources.
Correct Answer: B
Using only SIP trunks in the SME cluster allows you to deploy a “media transparent” cluster where media resources,
when required, are inserted by the end or leaf Unified Communications system and never by SME. Using only SIP
trunks also allows you to use extended round trip times (RTTs) between SME nodes when clustering over the WAN.


QUESTION 22
A Jabber for window user is on a call with cisco telepresence EX90 endpoint at the same location. During the call, the
video on the jabber for Windows application was high quality but the video on the EX90 was choppy and slow. When the
administrator checked the service rate on the EX90 it showed 2048 Kbps. Which two configuration changes can fix this
problem?
A. Lower the bit rate in the region configuration in communication manager between the endpoints
B. Increase the location bandwidth for immersive video between the endpoints
C. Enable BFCP in the SIP profile for the jabber client
D. Enable H.263 on the EX90
E. Replace the camera for the jabber user with the precision HD USB camera
F. Increase the bandwidth between the jabber video client and the EX90
Correct Answer: EF


QUESTION 23
Refer to the exhibit.leads4pass 400-051 exam question-q23What does an outside caller hear when calling a user and forwarding to Cisco Unity Connection?
A. The caller hears the Emergency greeting, followed by the voicemail greeting of the user they originally called.
B. The caller hears the message “Emergency Message is not available,” followed by the voicemail greeting of the user
they originally called.
C. The caller hears the emergency greeting followed by the Opening Greeting message.
D. The caller hears the Main Message greeting and then the call is disconnected.
Correct Answer: B


QUESTION 24
Which codec complexity mode, when deployed on Cisco IOS routers with DSPs using the C5510 chipset, supports the
most G.711 calls per DSP?
A. Low
B. Medium
C. High
D. Secure
E. Flex
Correct Answer: E
The flex parameter allows the complexity to automatically adjust to either medium or high complexity depending on the
needs of a call. For example, if a call uses the G.711 codec, the C5510 chipset automatically adjusts to the medium-
complexity mode. However, if the call uses G.729, the C5510 chipset uses the high complexity mode


QUESTION 25
An engineer configuration EmCC needs to understand the priority order in which the home Cluster concatenates calling
search space (CSS) when users login to the visiting Phones.
Drag the CSS on the left to the correct priority order on the right. Not all options will be used.
Priority 1 is the highest and priority 3 is the lowest.
Select and Place:leads4pass 400-051 exam question-q25Correct Answer: leads4pass 400-051 exam question-q25-1

QUESTION 26
Which two rules apply to MMOH in SRST? (Choose two.)
A. A maximum of three MOH groups are allowed.
B. Cisco Unified SRST voice gateway allows you to associate phones with different MOH groups on the basis of their IP
address to receive different MOH media streams.
C. A maximum of five media streams are allowed.
D. Cisco Unified SRST voice gateway allows you to associate phones with different MOH groups on the basis of their
MAC address to receive different MOH media streams.
E. Cisco Unified SRST voice gateway allows you to associate phones with different MOH groups on the basis of their
extension numbers to receive different MOH media streams.
Correct Answer: CE


QUESTION 27
Refer to the exhibit.

leads4pass 400-051 exam question-q27

How many SIP signaling transaction(s) took place in this SIP message exchange between two SIP user agents?
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
E. 5
F. 6
Correct Answer: C
During the establishment, maintenance and termination of a SIP session, signaling messages are exchanged between
the two SIP endpoints. There are two different kinds of signaling “conversations” that those messages take part in:
transactions and dialogs.
A transaction is a SIP message exchange between two user-agents that starts with a request and ends with its final
response (it can also contain zero or more provisional responses in between). For example, during the termination of a
SIP session, one user releases the call by sending a BYE request and the other party replies back with a 200 OK
response. This message exchange is called a transaction. But what happens in the case of the INVITE request? The
establishment of a SIP session starts basically with an INVITE request and is considered as completed upon the receipt
of the ACK. In this case, the transaction starts with the INVITE request and ends with the 200 OK, so the ACK is not
part of the transaction. The ACK can be considered as a transaction on its own. However, when the final response to an
INVITE is not a 2xx response, then the ACK is considered as part of the transaction. A dialog is a complete exchange of
SIP messages between two user-agents. That means that transactions are actually parts of a dialog. For example, in
the case of a SIP session establishment, a dialog starts with the INVITE-200 OK transaction, continues with the ACK
and ends with the BYE-200 OK transaction. The picture below depicts the dialog and transactions that take place during
the establishment of a SIP session:leads4pass 400-051 exam question-q27-1Note: There can also be subsequent requests that belong to the same dialog, such as a BYE or a re-INVITE message.
As out-of-dialog requests are considered messages such as an initial INVITE request for a new session or an
OPTIONS
message for checking capabilities.
There are different SIP headers/parameters that identify the dialogs and transactions, and they will be analyzed in later
posts.
Reference: https://telconotes.wordpress.com/2013/03/13/sip-transactions-vs-dialogs/


QUESTION 28
In which call state does the Mobility soft key act as a toggle key to enable or disable Single Number Reach for Cisco
Unified Communications Manager Express SCCP IP phones?
A. idle
B. seized
C. alerting
D. ringing
E. connected
Correct Answer: A
Pressing the Mobility soft key during the idle call state enables the SNR feature. This key is a toggle; pressing it a
second time disables SNR.
Reference:
http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/voice_ip_comm/cucme/admin/configuration/guide/cm eadm/cmesnr.html


QUESTION 29
A Collaboration engineer implemented Cisco EMCC between Cisco Unified CM clusters. The administrator has
configured the bulk certificate management and exported the certificates to the SFTP server. After importing the
certificates into each of the clusters, the administrator tested Cisco EMCC on a phone, but received “Login is
unavailable (208)”. Which two steps resolve this error? (Choose two)
A. Update the cluster IDs so that they are unique in the EMCC network.
B. Enable the Allow Proxy service parameter on both clusters.
C. Restart the Cisco CallManager and Cisco Tomcat Servers.
D. Associate a user device profile for the user in the remote cluster.
E. Consolidate the exported certificates and reimport into each cluster.
Correct Answer: CE


QUESTION 30
Which two components are required when configuring the Cisco Unified Communications Manager for time-of-day
routing? (Choose three.)
A. Partition
B. Time Period
C. Time Schedule
D. Time Zone
E. Date Time Group
Correct Answer: ABC


QUESTION 31
Which statement about G.722.1 codec support on Cisco Unified Communications Manager is true?
A. It is always preferred by Cisco Unified Communications Manager over G.711.
B. It is a high-complexity wideband codec.
C. It operates at bit rates of 15.2 and 13.3 kb/s.
D. It is supported for SIP and SCCP devices.
E. It is supported for SIP and H.323 devices.
Correct Answer: E
G.722.1 is a low-complexity wideband codec operating at 24 and 32 kb/s. The audio quality approaches that of G.722
while using at most half the bit rate. As it is optimized for both speech and music, G.722.1 has slightly lower speech
quality than the speech-optimized iSAC codec. G.722.1 is supported for SIP and H.323 devices.


QUESTION 32
Which statement about a virtual SNR DN-configured Cisco Unified Communications Manager Express-enabled Cisco
IOS router is true?
A. Virtual SNR DN supports either SCCP or SIP IP phone DNs.
B. A virtual SNR DN is a DN that is associated with multiple registered IP phones.
C. Calls in progress can be pulled back from the phone that is associated with the virtual SNR DN.
D. The SNR feature can only be invoked if the virtual SNR DN is associated with at least one registered IP phone.
E. A call that arrived before a virtual SNR DN is associated with a registered phone, and still exists after association is
made, but cannot be answered from the phone.
Correct Answer: E
SCCP: Configuring a Virtual SNR DN
To configure a virtual SNR DN on Cisco Unified SCCP IP phones, perform the following steps.
Prerequisites
Cisco Unified CME 9.0 or a later version.
Restrictions
Virtual SNR DN only supports Cisco Unified SCCP IP phone DNs.
Virtual SNR DN provides no mid-call support.
Mid-calls are either of the following:
Calls that arrive before the DN is associated with a registered phone and is still present after the DN is associated with
the phone.
Calls that arrive for a registered DN that changes state from registered to virtual and back to registered.
Mid-calls cannot be pulled back, answered, or terminated from the phone associated with the DN.
State of the virtual DN transitions from ringing to hold or remains on hold as a registered DN.
http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/voice_ip_comm/cucme/admin/configuration/guide/cmeadm/cmesnr.html#38281


QUESTION 33
Where can a Cisco Unified CM administrator define Billing Application Server(s) for Call Detail Records?
A. Cisco Unified Serviceability
B. Service Parameters in Cisco Unified CM Administration.
C. Enterprise Parameters in Cisco Unified CM Administration.
D. Cisco Unified Reporting.
E. Call Detail Records data collection internal is not a configurable parameter.
Correct Answer: A


QUESTION 34
Which protocol is used by presence-enabled users in Cisco IM and Presence to control phones that are registered to
Cisco Unified Communications Manager?
A. AXL/SOAP
B. CTI/QBE
C. SIP/SIMPLE
D. LDAP
E. XMPP
Correct Answer: B
The CTI gateway provides desk phone control when users are configured for phone association mode. Proper
installation calls upon information to specify CTI gateway server names, addresses, ports, and protocols on CUPS.
Configured correctly, the CTI gateway enables users logging in to CUPC to reach the CTI gateway.


QUESTION 35
Which service, available only on the publisher server in a Cisco Unified CM cluster, is needed to enable a mixed mode
cluster?
A. Cisco Trust Verification
B. Cisco Transport Layer Security
C. Cisco CTL Provider
D. Cisco Certificate Expiry Monitor
E. Cisco Certificate Authority Proxy Function
Correct Answer: C


QUESTION 36
A Cisco Unified Contact Center Express manager wants to add database integration to the selfservice interactive voice
response application. Which four types of licensing and database servers support this requirement? (Choose four.)
A. The server must have enhanced licensing.
B. The server must have premium licensing.
C. A server running Sybase Adaptive Server is required.
D. A server running Oracle is required.
E. A server running Postgress SQL is required.
F. A server running SAP SQL server is required.
G. A server running Microsoft SQL server is required.
H. The server must have standard licensing.
Correct Answer: BCDG


QUESTION 37
Which two descriptions of +E.164 and enterprise alternate number for directory numbers in Cisco Unified
communications Manager 10.6 are true(choose two)
A. They cannot be advertised as PSTN fail over number
B. They can be added into local partition
C. If the number mask is not configured, the alternate number is invalid
D. They cannot be added into local partition
E. They are not eligible to be advertised using Global Dial Plan Replication
F. If the number mask it is not configured, use DN as alternate number
Correct Answer: BF


QUESTION 38
A Cisco Unity Connection administrator receives a name change request from a voice-mail user, whose Cisco Unity
Connection user account was imported from Cisco Unified Communications Manager. What should the administrator do
to execute this change?
A. Change the user data in the Cisco Unity Connection administration page, then use the Synch User page in Cisco
Unity Connection administration to push the change to Cisco Unified Communications Manager.
B. Change the user data in the Cisco Unified Communications Manager administration page, then use the Synch User
page in Cisco Unity Connection administration to pull the changes from Cisco Unified CM.
C. Change the user data in the Cisco Unified Communications Manager administration page, then use the Synch User
page in Cisco Unified CM administration to push the change to Cisco Unity Connection.
D. Change the user profile from Imported to Local on Cisco Unity Connection Administration, then edit the data locally
on Cisco Unity Connection.
E. Change the user data in Cisco Unity Connection and Cisco Unified Communications Manager separately
Correct Answer: B


QUESTION 39
Which route pattern is matched in Cisco Unified Communication Manager Version 11.0 when a user dials 2001?
A. 200X configured with urgent priority
B. 20[02-4]1 configured with urgent priority
C. 200! Configured with urgent priority
D. 20[*2-4]1 configured with urgent priorit
E. 20[1-4]1 configured with nonurgent priority
Correct Answer: C


QUESTION 40
Which method allows administrators to determine the best match impedance on analog voice ports in Cisco IOS router
without having to shut and no shut the ports?
A. THL tone sweep
B. original tone sweep
C. ECAN test
D. inject-tone local sweep
E. remote loop
Correct Answer: A
THL tone sweep allows all available impedances for a single test call to a quiet termination point out to the PSTN. You
do not need to manually disable ECAN on the voice port under test. The test feature switches impedances automatically
for the tester. The test feature calculates the arithmetic mean ERL and reports the mean for each channel profile at
each impedance setting. Then, at the end of the test, the feature specifies the best match impedance setting. This test
requires minimal supervision.
Reference: http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/support/docs/voice/ip-telephony-voice-over-ip- voip/64282-impedance-
choice.html

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Vendor: Cisco
Certifications: CCIE
Exam Name: CCIE Data Center Written Exam
Exam Code: 400-151
Total Questions: 491 Q&As

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Best Cisco CCIE 400-151 Dumps Exam Practice Questions And Answers (Q1-Q15)

QUESTION 1
Drag and drop the feature form the left onto the correct benefits on the right.
Select and Place:
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Correct Answer:
400-151 dumps
QUESTION 2
Drag and drop the spanning-tree port from the left onto the correct description on the right
Select and Place:
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Correct Answer:
400-151 dumps
QUESTION 3
Drag and drop the objects of the ACI policy model from left onto the correct definition on right.
Select and Place:
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Correct Answer:
400-151 dumps
QUESTION 4
Drag and drop the feature from the left onto the left onto the correct description on the right
Select and Place:
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Correct Answer:
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QUESTION 5
Drag and drop me concept of Cisco UCS Director orchestrator from the left onto the correct description on the right.
Select and Place:
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Correct Answer:
400-151 dumps
QUESTION 6
Drag and drop terms at the Cisco Prime Service Catalog from the left onto the definition on the right. 400-151 dumps
Select and Place:
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Correct Answer:
400-151 dumps
QUESTION 7
Drag and drop the method from the left onto the correct description on the right.
Select and Place:
400-151 dumps
Correct Answer:
400-151 dumps
QUESTION 8
An admin is updating an existing Cisco UCS environment to accommodate a new storage array that will be directly attached to the Cisco UCS.
Unmanaged servers external to the Cisco UCS fabric interconnects will also access the new array existing Cisco UCS service profiles will be used to access the new storage array.
Drag and drop the appropriate steps from left into the correct order on the right to migrate the Cisco UCS to support the new storage array.
Select and Place:
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Correct Answer:
400-151 dumps
QUESTION 9
Drag and drop the correct port security configuration on the left to the correct action on the right.
Select and Place:
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Correct Answer:
400-151 dumps
QUESTION 10
Drag and drop the mode of operation on left onto the correct definition on right.
Select and Place:
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Correct Answer:
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QUESTION 11
Drag and drop feature on the left onto the appropriate business benefits on the right
Select and Place:
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Correct Answer:
400-151 dumps
QUESTION 12
Drag and drop the actions in the left column into the right column in the order in which you would perform those actions in a step-by-step in-service software upgrade process 400-151 dumps
Select and Place:
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Correct Answer:
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QUESTION 13
Drag and drop two configurations that should fail without data loss from the left column into the 2 Devices Lost column on the right.
Select and Place:
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Correct Answer:
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QUESTION 14
Drag and drop the correct description on the left onto the protocols and features on the right. Not all options will be used.
Select and Place:
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Correct Answer:
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QUESTION 15
Drag and drop sequence of the steps on left for ISSU software of dual supervisor switches to achieve a non-disruptive upgrade on the right.
Select and Place:
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Correct Answer:
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Vendor: Cisco
Certifications: ICND2
Exam Name: Interconnecting Cisco Networking Devices Part 2 (ICND2 v3.0)
Exam Code: 200-105
Total Questions: 310 Q&As

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Latest Cisco ICND2 200-105 Dumps Exam Questions And Answers (Q1-Q20)

QUESTION 1
Which command can be used from a router to verify the Layer 3 path to a host?
A. tracert address
B. traceroute address
C. telnet address
D. ssh address
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 2
A network administrator has configured access list 173 to prevent Telnet and ICMP traffic from reaching a server with the address of 192.168.13.26. Which commands can the administrator issue to verify that the access list is working properly? (Choose three.)
A. Router# ping 192.168.13.26
B. Router# debug access-list 173
C. Router# show open ports 192.168.13.26
D. Router# show access-lists
E. Router# show ip interface
Correct Answer: ADE

QUESTION 3
When troubleshooting Ethernet connectivity issues, how can you verify that an IP address is known to a router?
A. Check whether the IP address is in the routing table
B. Check whether an ACL is blocking the IP address
C. Check whether the IP address is in the CAM table
D. Check whether the IP address is in the ARP table
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 4
Refer to the exhibit.
200-105 dumps
Assuming that the entire network topology is shown, what is the operational status of the interfaces of R2 as indicated by the command output shown?
A. One interface has a problem.
B. Two interfaces have problems.
C. The interfaces are functioning correctly.
D. The operational status of the interfaces cannot be determined from the output shown.
Correct Answer: C

Explanation:
R2 has setup with two interface s0/1 and fa0/0 and both are interfaces configured with IP address and up. “show ip interface brief” showing the status of R2 interfaces.

QUESTION 5
Which two steps must you perform on each device that is configured for IPv4 routing before you implement OSPFv3? 200-105 dumps (Choose two)
A. configure an autonomous system number
B. configure a loopback interface
C. configure a router ID
D. Enable IPv6 on an interface
E. Enable IPv6 unicast routing
Correct Answer: CE

QUESTION 6
200-105 dumps
200-105 dumps
Which connection uses the default encapsulation for serial interfaces on Cisco routers?
A. The serial connection to the NorthCoast branch office.
B. The serial connection to the North branch office.
C. The serial connection to the Southlands branch office.
D. The serial connection to the Multinational Core.
Correct Answer: B

Explanation:
Cisco default encapsulation is HDLC which is by default enabled on all cisco router. If we want to enable other encapsulation protocol (PPP,X.25 etc) we need to define in interface setting. But here except s1/1 all interface defined by other encapsulation protocol so we will assume default encapsulation running on s1/1 interface and s1/1 interface connected with North

QUESTION 7
Which statement about access lists that are applied to an interface is true?
A. You can place as many access lists as you want on any interface.
B. You can apply only one access list on any interface.
C. You can configure one access list, per direction, per Layer 3 protocol.
D. You can apply multiple access lists with the same protocol or in different directions.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 8
Which two statements about MPLS are true ?
A. it encapsulates all traffic in an ipv4 header
B. it provides automatic authentication
C. it uses labels to separate and forward customer traffic
D. it can carry multiple protocols, including ipv4 and ipv6
E. it tags customer traffic using 802.1q
Correct Answer: CD

QUESTION 9
Which technology can provide security when connection multiple sites across the internet?
A. EBGP
B. DMVPN
C. Site-to-site vpn
D. MPLS
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 10
Which protocol is a Cisco proprietary implementation of STP?
A. CST
B. RSTP
C. MSTP
D. PVST+
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 11
How can you manually configure a switch so that it is selected as the root Switch?
A. increase the priority number
B. lower the port priority number
C. lower the priority number
D. increase the port priority number
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 12
Which three describe the reasons large OSPF networks use a hierarchical design? (Choose Three)
A. to speed up convergence
B. to reduce routing overhead
C. to lower costs by replacing routers with distribution layer switches
D. to decrease latency by increasing bandwidth
E. to confine network instability to single areas of the network
F. to reduce the complexity of router configuration
Correct Answer: ABE

QUESTION 13
Which function does traffic shaping perform?
A. it buffers traffic without queuing it
B. it queues traffic without buffering it
C. it drops packets to control the output rate
D. it buffers and queues excess packets
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 14
Which of the port is not part of STP protocol?
A. Listening
B. Learning
C. Forwarding
D. Discarding
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 15
Which functionality does an SVI provide?
A. OSI Layer 2 connectivity to switches
B. remote switch administration
C. traffic routing for VLANs
D. OSI Layer 3 connectivity to switches
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 16
If two OSPF neighbors have formed complete adjacency and are exchanging link-state advertisements, which state have they reached?
A. Exstart
B. 2-Way
C. FULL
D. Exchange
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 17
Which one of these is a valid HSRP Virtual Mac Address? 200-105 dumps
A. 0000.0C07.AC15
B. 0000.5E00.01A3
C. 0007.B400.AE01
D. 0007.5E00.B301
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 18
Assuming the default switch configuration which vlan range can be added modified and removed on a cisco switch?
A. 2 through 1001
B. 1 through 1001
C. 1 through 1002
D. 2 through 1005
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 19
Which command do use we to see SNMP version?
A. show snmp pending
B. show snmp enginelD
C. snmp-server something
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 20
While troubleshooting a connection problem on a computer,you determined that the computer can ping a specific web server but it cannot connect to TCP port 80 on that server.
Which reason for the problem is most likely ture?
A. A VLAN number is incorrect
B. An ARP table entry is missing
C. A route is missing
D. An ACL is blocking the TCP port
Correct Answer: D

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Vendor: Cisco
Certifications: CCNA Wireless
Exam Name: Implementing Cisco Wireless Network Fundamentals
Exam Code: 200-355
Total Questions: 504 Q&As

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Hot Cisco CCNA Wireless 200-355 Dumps Exam Questions And Answers (Q1-Q30)

QUESTION 1
What is max power for an AP for all regulatory bodies?
A. 10
B. 8
C. 1
D. X
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 2
How Cisco spectrum analyzer analyse the scanned data?
A. Store scanned data during wifi scan and analyze later.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 3
What is the deployment that requires least amount of hardware installed on the site?
A. Cloud
B. Converged
C. Centralized
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 4
What command can be used on the WLC to show the logs (or something) for an AP with the name Cisco_AP?
A. show logging
B. show ap eventlog Cisco_AP
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 5
What is the command used to debug an AP that is not able to join the WLC?
A. debug capwap events enable (on the WLC)
B. debug capwap events enable (on the AP)
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 6
What are the channels you need to avoid not to have interference with DFS channels? (Choose 3)
A. 52
B. 136
C. 124
D. 161
Correct Answer: BCD

QUESTION 7
What is required from the deployment when using voice or video applications? (Choose 3)
A. RSSI cell edge of -25
B. RSSI cell edge of -16
C. SNR of 25
D. Cell Overlap of 20%
E. RSSI -67
Correct Answer: CDE

QUESTION 8
What are the sources of interference you will find when conducting a site survery before deployment? 200-355 dumps (Choose 3)
A. Bluetooth Headset
B. Microwave Ovens
C. Analog Wireless Camera
D. AdHoc Wireless Camera
E. AdHoc Hotspot
Correct Answer: ABC

QUESTION 9
What are reqs for VoWLAN?
A. RSSI -67
B. SNR 25
C. 20% overlapping cells
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 10
What is SNR needed for 54 Mbps?
A. SNR 25
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 11
What is max level in Cisco WLC TPC for all regulatory domain?
A. 1
B. 8
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 12
Engineer needs an LAP to support few WLANs with different DHCP servers for different SSIDs, how to fulfill this requirement?
A. configuring dynamic VLAN interfacesto SSIDs in AP group.
B. configure DHCP in AP settings advanced page
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 13
Which wireless survey you do considering the “infrastructure” in the building?
A. Passive
B. Active
C. Planning
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 14
What are the minimum requirements to operate cisco 7925 wireless phone? (Choose 3)
A. RSSI -67
B. SNR 25
C. 20% cell overlapping
Correct Answer: ABC

QUESTION 15
Which WLC menu you use the check the assigned power level of an AP?
A. Wireless
B. Management
C. Controller
D. Monitor.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 16
How much wireless cell overlapping is required for 5GHz voice and data roaming?
A. 5%
B. 10%
C. 15%
D. 20%
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 17
Which CLI command you use in WLC to update the running IOS?
A. TFTP
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 18
What is the maximum power level for AP in any regularity domain?
A. 1
B. 5
C. 8
D. 10
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 19
How much SNR needed to reach 54Mbps in 802.11g network?
A. 25
B. 10
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 20
What three authentication methods are generally used in enterprise wireless networks? (Choose three.)
A. AES
B. CCKM
C. EAP-FAST
D. EAP-TLS
E. PEAP
F. WEP
Correct Answer: CDE

QUESTION 21
Which CLI command shows the controller configuration in a way that is similar to the way that it is displayed on Cisco IOS routers?
A. show config
B. show run config
C. show run-config
D. show running config
E. show running-config
Correct Answer: E

QUESTION 22
Which four parameters need to be configured for local EAP-FAST on the controller? (Choose four.)
A. Authority ID
B. Authority ID Information
C. Client Key
D. PAC
E. Server Key
F. TTL for PAC
G. Monitor Key
H. NTP Source
Correct Answer: ABEF

QUESTION 23
Which CLI command would you use on the Cisco WLC to display detailed information for a client associated with a lightweight access point?
A. debug dot11
B. show arp switch
C. show client detailed
D. show exclusionlist
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 24
Which statement applies to TKIP? 200-355 dumps
A. is part of the initial key exchange used to derive a pairwise temporal key
B. is used to encrypt a WEP authenticated session
C. is used to encrypt the data for WPA sessions
D. is used to secure the initial authentication credential exchange between client and authenticator
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 25
What does the current European Telecommunications Standards Institute rule state is the 2.4-GHz maximum transmitter output power for point-to-point installations?
A. 16 dBm
B. 17 dBm
C. 20 dBm
D. 30 dBm
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 26
How do the features that are available on the Cisco WCS for Linux version differ from those of the Cisco WCS for Windows version?
A. Assuming that there are no differences in hardware, a Cisco WCS for Linux can support up to 750 wireless LAN controllers. A Cisco WCS for Windows can support up to 250 wireless LAN controllers.
B. Cisco WCS for Windows includes support for Cisco Spectrum Expert clients. Cisco WCS for Linux does not support Cisco Spectrum Expert clients.
C. Cisco WCS for Linux is required for deployments.
D. There are no differences in features between the Linux and Windows versions of Cisco WCS.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 27
Which modulation technique allows you to achieve a data rate of 54Mb/s in the 2.4GHz-band?
A. Complimentary Code Keying
B. Differential Binary Phase Shift Keying
C. Differential Quadrature Phase Shift Keying
D. Quadrature Amplitude Modulation
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 28
What is the result when client exclusion is enabled with a timeout value of zero?
A. Clients are excluded indefinitely.
B. Clients are never excluded.
C. Client exclusion is disabled.
D. Clients must be explicitly included by specifying the MAC address.
E. Exclusion and inclusion is determined by access list.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 29
An indoor 1240 AP is booting and has obtained an IP address using DHCP. The AP has confirmed prior controller IP addresses from a previously joined mobility group stored in NVRAM.
What is the next step the AP performs?
A. DHCP option 43.
B. DNS resolution of CISCO-LWAPP-CONTROLLER.localdomain.
C. Layer 2 LWAPP discovery broadcast.
D. Layer 3 LWAPP discovery broadcast.
E. Ping each Cisco WLC to verify its current status.
F. Select a Cisco WLC based on its position in the configured join selection sequence.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 30
Which AP to Wireless LAN Controller discovery process requires a previous association of the AP with a Cisco WLC?
A. AP priming
B. defining a master controller
C. DHCP Option 6
D. DHCP Option 43
Correct Answer: A

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Vendor: Cisco
Certifications: CCNA Data Center
Exam Name: Introducing Cisco Data Center Technologies
Exam Code: 640-916
Total Questions: 182 Q&As

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Cisco CCNA Data Center 640-916 Dumps Exam Questions And Answers (Q1-Q20)

QUESTION 1
Which commands issued on the Cisco Nexus 1000V VSM push the port profile named VMdata to the VMware vCenter server?
A. N1000v-VSM(config)# port-profile VMdataN1000v-VSM(config-port-prof)# no shutdown
B. N1000v-VSM(config)# port-profile VMdataN1000v-VSM(config-port-prof)# push profile
C. N1000v-VSM(config)# port-profile VMdataN1000v-VSM(config-port-prof)# state enabled
D. N1000v-VSM(config)# port-profile VMdataN1000v-VSM(config-port-prof)# update profile
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 2
What is the maximum number of Cisco ACE GSS 4400 Series Appliances that can be part of a high-availability mesh?
A. 16
B. 8
C. 4
D. 3
E. 12
F. 14
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 3
An administrator has installed two Cisco VIC adapters. The administrator has also configured four virtual network interface cards and two virtual host bus adapters. Using this configuration, how many PCI bus addresses will be presented to the server operating system?
A. 2
B. 4
C. 6
D. 8
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 4
Which three options are characteristics of a data center access layer switch? (Choose three.)
A. host connectivity
B. firewall connectivity
C. QoS marking
D. spanning-tree edge ports
E. high-speed packet switching
Correct Answer: ACD

QUESTION 5
Which three are features of Cisco OTV? (Choose three.)
A. control plane-based MAC learning
B. dynamic encapsulation
C. MAC address learning based on flooding
D. pseudo wires and tunnels
E. complex dual-homing
F. native automated multihoming
Correct Answer: ABF

QUESTION 6
An engineer has been asked to configure the Nexus 1000v for a ESXi Cluster. 640-916 dumps What component of the Nexus 1000v needs to be installed on the hosts?
A. VSG
B. VEM
C. vShield
D. DVS
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 7
Scenario:
Customer is configuring FCoE and NPV in their Data Center on Cisco Nexus 5000 Series Switches. Please go through the Topology and Exhibit 1 through 4 to answer the following questions.
Topology:
640-916 dumps
640-916 dumps
What can you tell about server ports and their external interfaces from the exhibits?
A. vfc3/1 is not correctly connected to server external interface fc2/1.
B. vfc3/1 is not correctly connected to server external interface fc2/1 and flogi are unsuccessful.
C. Server interface vfc3/1 is assigned to NP uplinks fc2/1,fc2/2, fc2/3, andfc2/4. There are 4 successful flogi.
D. Server interface vfc3/1 is assigned to NP uplinks fc2/1, fc2/2, fc2/3, and fc2/4. There are 4 flogi are in initialization state.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 8
What option automatically performs an inventory and deep discovery of any subsequently attached equipment, without requiring manual intervention?
A. UCS Manager
B. UCS Server
C. CDP Manager
D. Enterprise Manager
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 9
Which command issued on the Cisco Nexus 1000V VSM validates the connection to the VMware vCenter server?
A. N1000v-VSM# show vmware-vim
B. N1000v-VSM# show connections vmware
C. N1000v-VSM# show svs connections
D. N1000v-VSM# show vcenter status
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 10
An administrator connected a new server to a Cisco MDS 9222i on Port FCL/20, but did not capture the world wide node name of the host bus adapter. Which command returns the needed information?
A. show flogi database
B. show fcns database
C. show fcs database
D. show wwn status
E. show interface fc 1/20
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 11
Which SAN port type allows multihop FCoE between two SAN switches?
A. VN
B. VE
C. VF
D. E
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 12
Which is the correct port mapping for a Fibre Channel HBA connected to a Cisco MDS Fibre Channel switch?
A. H_Port to N_Port
B. N_Port to S_Port
C. H_Port to S_Port
D. N_Port to F_Port
E. H_Port to F_Port
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 13
In a large enterprise, which two SAN switches are ideal core switches for providing high availability? (Choose two.)
A. Cisco Nexus 5548
B. Cisco MDS 9710
C. Cisco MDS 9509
D. Cisco Nexus 7028
E. Cisco MDS 9222i
Correct Answer: BC

QUESTION 14
Which three are the three primary methods to configure Cisco UCS B-Series systems? 640-916 dumps (Choose three.)
A. SNMP
B. XML API
C. UCS Manager GUI
D. IPMI
E. UCS Manager CLI
F. CIM-XML
Correct Answer: BCE

QUESTION 15
A network engineer is configuring a pair of 6248 Fabric Interconnects, each with dual 10G uplinks to a parent switch. One design requirement is to ensure a specific server is able to use 10G of throughput to the LAN without contention from other servers within the 5108 chassis. Which technology will accomplish this?
A. LAN Pin Groups
B. Port-Channels
C. System QoS Policy
D. Unified Ports
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 16
Which item best describes the STP requirements for Cisco FabricPath?
A. RPVST must be configured on every Cisco FabricPath VLAN.
B. RPVST must be configured on every Cisco FabricPath Border interface.
C. MST must be configured on every Cisco FabricPath VLAN.
D. MST must be configured on every Cisco FPBI.
E. STP is required only to resolve border link failures.
F. STP is not required on Cisco FabricPath interfaces.
Correct Answer: F

QUESTION 17
Which port type pair is used to connect FCoE switches in multihop FCoE?
A. N to F
B. VF to VN
C. VE to VE
D. TE to TE
E. NL to NF
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 18
Which two switches does Cisco recommend for small and medium-sized organizations to provide a cost-effective solution for the Fibre Channel SAN edge? (Choose two.)
A. Cisco MDS 9250i
B. Cisco MDS 9506
C. Cisco MDS 9148
D. Cisco MDS 9509
Correct Answer: AC

QUESTION 19
Which is a function of the data center access layer?
A. repeater
B. high-speed packet switching
C. access control
D. firewalling and Intrusion Prevention
E. services layer
F. QoS marking
Correct Answer: F

QUESTION 20
On the Cisco Nexus 5000, which three commands help verify network connectivity? (Choose three.)
A. ping
B. show interface brief
C. show otv
D. show vdc membership
E. traceroute
Correct Answer: ABE

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Vendor: Cisco
Certifications: CCNA Collaboration
Exam Name: Implementing Cisco Collaboration Devices v1.0
Exam Code: 210-060
Total Questions: 235 Q&As

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Latest Cisco CCNA Collaboration 210-060 Dumps Exam Questions And Verified Answers (Q1-Q30)

QUESTION 1
The Voice engineer in your company need to change IP address destination on SIP-Trunk on near side?
A. reset trunk on near side
B. reset trunk on far side
C. reset trunk on far and near side
D. restart call manager service
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 2
What is the recommended maximum one-way latency for voice and video networks?
A. 100 ms
B. 150 ms
C. 200 ms
D. 300 ms
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 3
An end user has an 7945 IP phone, but is unable to launch any of the IP phone applications. A network engineer has confirmed that the device is subscribed to the appropriate applications in Cisco Unified Communications Manager.
How should the engineer instruct the user to launch the IP phone applications?
A. Select the “?” button on the IP phone.
B. Select the globe button on the IP phone.
C. Select Settings > User Preferences.
D. Select Settings > Device Configuration.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 4
Use the router console to view the configuration and answer the question.
210-060 dumps
210-060 dumps
When a call is placed from the Branch Router phone to the PSTN number of 914085551212, the call is failing. What dial-peer is supposed to be used and why is the call failing? Select 2 (two)
A. dial-peer voice 910 pots
B. dial-peer voice 9 pots
C. dial-peer voice 9001 voip
D. destination pattern is incorrect
E. prefix is missing from the dial-peer
F. the port assignment is incorrect in the dial-peer
G. the port number is missing in the dial-peer
Correct Answer: BF

Explanation:
The dial 9, 910, and 9001 dial peer configurations are shown below:
210-060 dumps
210-060 dumps
Here we see that dial peer 9 and 910 match the same destination pattern, but 9 will be used first. However, the port used should be 0/0/0:15 not 0/0/0:12.
210-060 dumps
QUESTION 5
An engineer receives a service ticket because a user cannot log into Cisco Unified CM User Options. Where can the engineer verify that the user account is active?
A. LDAP System Configuration
B. LDAP Directory
C. End User Configuration
D. LDAP Authentication
E. Route Plan Report
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 6
A user reports that several IP phones in a single department are displaying a continuous “registering” message. Which fault domain should be investigated? 210-060 dumps
A. network router
B. Cisco Unified Communications Manager subscriber node
C. network switch
D. IP phones
E. SIP gateway
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 7
User A notices echo on a call with user B. Both users are using Cisco VoIP phones. User B is using a headset, and user A is using a handset. What is the most likely source of the echo?
A. user A handset
B. user B headset
C. disabled echo cancellation on user A phone profile
D. disabled echo cancellation on user B phone profile
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 8
What is needed to support SIP Early Media?
A. Media Termination Point
B. Transcoder
C. Annunciator
D. Conference Bridge
E. DSP
F. Route List
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 9
Which three characteristics are associated with voice? (Choose three.)
A. greedy
B. TCP retransmits
C. UDP priority
D. delay sensitive
E. drop insensitive
F. benign
G. benign or greedy
Correct Answer: CDF

QUESTION 10
With GETVPN, if a key server is configured to use multicast as the rekey transport mechanism, then under which of these conditions will the key server retransmit the rekey messages?
A. It never retransmit the rekey messages
B. it only retransmit the rekey message when it does not receive the rekey acknowledgment from at least one group member
C. it only retransmit the rekey message when it does not receive the rekey acknowledgment from all group member
D. it only retransmit the rekey message when DPD to the group members fails
E. it always retransmit the rekey message
Correct Answer: E

QUESTION 11
In an effort to proactively manage IP telephony infrastructure, a network engineer wants to review usage reports that provide top five users, top five calls, and traffic summary. Which option describes where this information can be retrieved using Cisco Unified Communications Manager?
A. Navigate to Cisco Unified CM Administration > CDR Analysis and Reporting >System Reports > System Overview > Select desired reports.
B. Navigate to Cisco Unified Operating System Administration > Tools > System Reports > System Overview > Select desired reports.
C. Navigate to Cisco Unified Serviceability > Tools > CDR Analysis and Reporting > System Reports > System Overview > Select desired reports.
D. Navigate to Cisco Unified Reporting > Tools > System Reports > System Overview > Select desired reports.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 12
After getting reports that users cannot make calls out to the PSTN, a network administrator opens the Cisco Unified Communications Manager Administration web page and begins to review route patterns. Why would the administrator look here when troubleshooting PSTN connectivity troubles?
A. A route pattern contains a list of gateways that can reach the PSTN.
B. A route pattern contains dial plan information for calling the PSTN.
C. A route pattern contains the necessary privileges for calling the PSTN.
D. A route pattern contains a list of SIP trunks that can reach the PSTN.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 13
An engineer is adding a third-party video endpoint to Cisco Unified Communications Manager. Which third-party device type should be used when adding the system?
A. SCCP
B. SIP
C. MGCP
D. H.323
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 14
How can an administrator determine which codec is being used between two endpoints while a call is in progress?
A. Run the codec trace in Cisco Unified Communication Manager.
B. Use Cisco Unified Serviceability network trace.
C. Can only be seen in Cisco SDI traces.
D. Can only be seen in a sniffer trace.
E. Press the ? button twice on one of the IP phones.
Correct Answer: E

QUESTION 15
Which three network elements are crucial when deploying VoIP devices? (Choose three.)
A. Round-trip time
B. QoS markings
C. Bandwidth
D. Ethernet
E. Fibre
F. Token ring
Correct Answer: ABC

QUESTION 16
Which type of data file is used for bulk import of users into Cisco Unity Connection?
A. .xls
B. .doc
C. .csv
D. .pdf
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 17
To control telephony costs, management wants to restrict who can place long distance calls. Which two options allow for this restriction? (Choose two.)
A. calling search space
B. partitions
C. route groups
D. SIP trunk
E. gateway
Correct Answer: AB

QUESTION 18
An end user reports that conference calls are failing. Which fault domain should be investigated first?
A. IP phone
B. Cisco Unified Communications Manager Media Resources
C. voice gateways
D. network routers and switches
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 19
Which two tools can be used to measure the quality of a VoIP call? 210-060 dumps (Choose two.)
A. QoS configuration tool
B. mean opinion score tool
C. bulk administration tool
D. jitter compensation tool
E. rFactor tool
Correct Answer: BE

QUESTION 20
Which three locations can an administrator import from to create users on Cisco Unity Connection? (Choose three.)
A. Bulk administration tool
B. LDAP
C. Cisco Unified Communications Manager via AXL
D. Outlook
E. Presence
F. Cisco Compatible Extensions
Correct Answer: ABC

QUESTION 21
Which Cisco Unified Communications Manager device report provides key information to determine if an additional gateway is needed?
A. Gateway utilization
B. Gateway summary
C. Gateway detail
D. Gateway and line group utilization
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 22
Which three choices are functions or features of Cisco Unity Connection? (Choose three.)
A. video-enabled messaging through converged networks
B. text-to-speech, which allows access to Exchange emails from a telephone
C. voice-enabled message navigation
D. voice-enabled dialing to external users
E. automated attendant capabilities
F. automated call rerouting to agents through round robin, longest idle, or broadcast
Correct Answer: BCE

QUESTION 23
A network engineer must set up an end-user account for a SIP device to use for authentication. Which end-user information is used for SIP authentication?
A. account ID
B. password
C. PIN
D. digest credentials
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 24
An engineer is configuring the Cisco Unified Communications Manager disaster recovery system. Which three statements about the disaster recovery system are true? (Choose three.)
A. It requires the use of schedules for backups.
B. Backup files are encrypted using the cluster security password.
C. If the backup device is listed in a backup schedule, it cannot be manually deleted.
D. If the backup does not complete within 40 hours, the backup times out.
E. Archiving backups to tape drives is supported.
F. SSL is used between the master and local agents.
Correct Answer: BCF

QUESTION 25
Which option is added number phone configuration is Cisco Unified Communicator Manager to add conference bridge resource to the phone
A. Media Resource Group
B. Conference Resource list
C. Conference Bridge
D. Media Resource Group List
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 26
End user is on a cisco telepresence session with remote participant and can control the camera at the remote endpoint. Which feature is underlying?
A. FECC
B. DTMF
C. FEC
D. PIP
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 27
A voice engineer has installed an XML-based phone application from a third party and subscribed a user’s 7945 IP phone to the application. Which action does the user take to launch the new service on the IP phone?
A. Select the Applications button on the 7945 IP phone.
B. Select Settings > Applications.
C. Select Settings > Network > Applications.
D. Select the Services button on the 7945 IP phone.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 28
Which two explanations of DTMF dialing are true? (Choose two.)
A. DTMF dialing consists of simultaneous voice-band tones generated when a button is pressed on a telephone.
B. The use of DTMF enables support for advanced telephony services.
C. DTMF dialing uses INVITE messages to signal when the first digit is pressed in a new call.
D. DTMF dialing consists of a simultaneous digital-band pulse generated when a button is pressed on a telephone.
Correct Answer: AB

QUESTION 29
A Cisco administrator is asked to set up two new end users in Cisco Unified Communication Manager. Which two fields are required? 210-060 dumps (Choose two.)
A. First Name
B. User ID
C. PIN
D. Telephone Number
E. Password
F. Last Name
Correct Answer: AD

QUESTION 30
A user reports that during calls they hear excessive hissing when neither party is talking.
Which option is one cause of this noise?
A. QoS
B. LoPS
C. VAD
D. EPL
E. SRST
Correct Answer: C

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Vendor: Cisco
Certifications: CCNP Data Center
Exam Name: Designing Cisco Data Center Infrastructure
Exam Code: 300-160
Total Questions: 439 Q&As
300-160
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New Cisco CCNP Data Center 300-160 Dumps Exam Real Questions And Answers (Q1-Q20)

QUESTION 1
Which component is required to run FCoE?
A. converged network adapter
B. iSCSI gateway
C. host bus adapter
D. Fibre Channel adapter
Correct Answer: A

Explanation:
Explanation: Computers can connect to FCoE with converged network adapters (CNAs), which contain both Fibre Channel host bus adapter (HBA) and Ethernet Network Interface Card (NIC) functionality on the same adapter card. CNAs have one or more physical Ethernet ports. FCoE encapsulation can be done in software with a conventional Ethernet network interface card, however FCoE CNAs offload (from the CPU) the low level frame processing and SCSI protocol functions traditionally performed by Fibre Channel host bus adapters.

QUESTION 2
You have a Cisco Nexus 5500 Series switch. What is the default load-balancing hash mechanism for traffic on FCoE port channels?
A. the source MAC address
B. the source IP address and the destination IP address
C. the source MAC address and the destination MAC address
D. the source TCP or UDP port and the destination TCP or UDP port
Correct Answer: B

Explanation:
On Nexus 5500 the default load balancing mechanism on the LACP port- channel for FCoE traffic is “source-destination”. In this default state, all the FCoE traffic takes the same link in the portchannel when the Nexus 5500 forwards frames over FCoE VE ports. In order to enable all links to be used in the port-channel for FCoE traffic, enter the port-channel load-balance ethernet source-dest-port command to configure Nexus 5500 “port-channel load balancing” to “source-dest-port”. With this configuration “source- destination-oxid” load balancing is used for FCoE traffic.

QUESTION 3
You must configure resiliency for Fibre Channel uplink ports on Cisco UCS Fabric Interconnects. Which feature should you configure?
A. an appliance port
B. vPC
C. a port channel
D. a unified storage port
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 4
What is the most common design requirement when creating a data center solution?
A. high availability with disaster recovery
B. multicore CPU servers
C. traffic inspection for inbound traffic
D. virtualization of network resources
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 5
Which two actions must be performed when you configure Cisco VN-Link in hardware? (Choose two.)
A. Create a distributed virtual switch in Cisco UCS Manager.
B. Add an ESX host to the distributed virtual switch in Cisco UCS Manager.
C. Create a port profile and profile clients in Cisco UCS Manager.
D. Create a standard switch on an ESXi host and map the network adapters to the switch.
E. Create a distributed virtual switch under the datacenter folder in VMware vCenter.
Correct Answer: AC

QUESTION 6
Which two platforms support the FCoE protocol? (Choose two)
A. Cisco Nexus 2332TQ Series
B. Cisco MDS 9148S Series
C. Cisco Nexus 7010 Series
D. Cisco MDS 9222i Series
E. Cisco Nexus 2248TP Series
Correct Answer: CD

QUESTION 7
Spanning Tree Protocol runs at which functional layer of the data center?
A. core layer
B. access layer
C. application layer
D. network layer
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 8
You deploy new server infrastructure by using a Cisco UCS platform. Winch two design options can you use to increase the redundancy of the new compute solution’ 300-160 dumps (Choose two.)
A. a 10-Gb uplink port
B. a pin vNic in the server profile to a specific Fabric Interconnect node that has failover disabled
C. an uplink port in a port channel configuration
D. static pinning at the server ports
E. more than one server port to connect the Cisco UCS B-Series blade IOM
Correct Answer: BC

QUESTION 9
Which two options are supported on Cisco UCS Fabric Interconnects that use native Fibre Channel connectivity? (Choose two)
A. iSCSI
B. NFS
C. DAS
D. SAN
E. iFCP

QUESTION 10
Which technology provides the ability to use all links in a LAN topology by providing an active-active path to the upstream switch?
A. STP
B. vPC
C. PVST+
D. RSTP
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 11
When you configure FCIP, which two types of acceleration can you enable to maximize WAN link utilization? (Choose two)
A. SCSI write
B. link
C. SCSI tape
D. WAN
E. IP
Correct Answer: AC

QUESTION 12
What are two benefits of a service insertion that is mediated through the Cisco APIC instead of the classical Ethernet model? (Choose two.)
A. provides Layer 5 service insertion capability
B. provides Layer 7 service insertion capability
C. provides policies that can manage the network and service appliances
D. can automate the service insertion
E. provides built-in services, such as Cisco ACE Web Application Firewall and ADC
Correct Answer: BC

QUESTION 13
What are common switching protocols that are used in the data center? (Choose two.)
A. Token Ring
B. FDDI
C. Ethernet
D. MPLS
E. Frame Relay
F. APPN/APPI
Correct Answer: CD

QUESTION 14
You plan to use vPC+ in a FabricPath topology. What are two characteristics of a vPC+ switch ID? (Choose two.)
A. must he set to 255
B. must be set manually
C. can be reused in the FabricPath topology
D. must be the same on each vPC+ peer
E. must be different on each vPC+ peer
Correct Answer: CD

QUESTION 15
Which option can be used to provide a nonproprietary method of load balancing and redundancy between the access and aggregation layers in the data canter?
A. vPC
B. PAgP
C. LACP
D. host vPC
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 16
You must use one logical uplink for Fibre Channel traffic and Ethernet traffic on a Cisco UCS system.
Which type of port should you use to accomplish this task?
A. FCoE storage
B. server
C. FCoE uplink
D. uplink
Correct Answer: C

Explanation:
Server and Uplink Ports on the Fabric Interconnect Each fabric interconnect has a set of ports in a fixed port module that you can configure as either server ports or uplink Ethernet ports. 300-160 dumps These ports are not reserved. They cannot be used by a Cisco UCS instance until you configure them. You can addexpansion modules to increase the number of uplink ports on the fabric interconnect or to add uplink Fibre Channel ports to the fabric interconnect.
You need to create LAN pin groups and SAN pin groups to pin traffic from servers to an uplink port. Each fabric interconnect can include the following types of ports:
Server Ports
Server ports handle data traffic between the fabric interconnect and the adapter cards on the servers. You can only configure server ports on the fixed port module. Expansion modules do not include server ports.
Uplink Ethernet Ports
Uplink Ethernet ports handle Ethernet traffic between the fabric interconnect and the next layer of the network. All network-bound Ethernet traffic is pinned to one of these ports. By default, Ethernet ports are unconfigured. However, you can configure them to function in the following ways:
Server
Uplink
FCoE
Appliance
You can configure uplink Ethernet ports on either the fixed module or an expansion module.
Uplink Fibre Channel Ports
Uplink Fibre Channel ports handle FCoE traffic between the fabric interconnect and the next layer of the network. All network-bound FCoE traffic is pinned to one of these ports. By default, Fibre Channel ports are uplink. However, you can configure them to function as Fibre Channel storage ports. This is useful in cases where a Cisco UCS requires a connection to a Direct-Attached Storage (DAS) device. You can only configure uplink Fibre Channel ports on an expansion module. The fixed module does not include uplink Fibre Channel ports.

QUESTION 17
You use Cisco UCS Central to manage Cisco UCS. Which statement accurately describes how local and global policies are applied?
A. A local policy is applied by using Cisco UCS Central, and a global policy is applied by using Cisco UCS Director.
B. A local policy is applied by using Cisco UCS Manager, and a global policy is applied by using Cisco UCS Central.
C. A local policy is applied by using Cisco UCS Director, and a global policy is applied by using Cisco UCS Central.
D. A local policy is applied by using Cisco UCS Central, and a global policy is applied by using Cisco UCS Manager.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 18
Which technology uses TCP as a block I/O transport?
A. iSCSI
B. NFS v4
C. CIFS
D. FCoE
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 19
Which statement accurately describes VSAN-based QoS when the same flow is present in two class maps that are associated to a policy map?
A. The highest QoS value is used.
B. The lowest QoS value is used.
C. The QoS value ot the class map that is attached first takes effect.
D. The QoS value ot the class map that is attached last takes effect.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 20
A customer is interested in endpoint security at the access layer, which option is Cisco recommended?
A. ACLs
B. DAI
C. TrustSec
D. stateful inspection
E. UDLD
Correct Answer: C

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