December 21, 2024

Cisco CCNP

leads4pass 300-720 dumps Update Adds More exam questions

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leads4pass 300-720 dumps: https://www.leads4pass.com/300-720.html Updated with new exam questions, based on the new 300-720 SESA “Securing Email with Cisco Email Security Appliance” exam topic:

  • Cisco Email Security Appliance Administration
  • Spam Control with Talos SenderBase and Antispam
  • Content and Message Filters
  • LDAP and SMTP Sessions
  • Email Authentication and Encryption
  • System Quarantines and Delivery Methods

Expanded with more exam questions, it is the latest 300-720 SESA exam solution!

It also provides two learning methods, PDF and VCE, both of which contain the latest exam practice questions to help you prepare for the 300-720 SESA exam easily!

Latest 300-720 SESA Exam Details:

Exam name:Securing Email with Cisco Email Security Appliance (SESA)
Exam code:300-720
The number of exam questions:55-65
Languages:English
Time:90 minutes
Price:$300 USD
Exam Type:Multiple-choice (single answer)
Multiple-choice (multiple answers)
Drag and drop
Simulation
Passing Score:750-850 / 1000 (Data Variable)
Exam Registration:In-person, Pearson VUE

Free sharing of Latest 300-720 dumps exam questions online practice

FromNumber of exam questionsTypeRelated exams
leads4pass15/142FreeCCNP Security

Question 1:

A network engineer is editing the default DMARC verification profile on a Cisco ESA and must ensure that the configured Message Action in the profile matches the policy in the DMARC record. What must be set to achieve this result?

A. “Message Action when the Policy in DMARC Record is Reject” to Reject

B. “Message Action when the Policy in DMARC Record is None” to Quarantine

C. “Message Action when the Policy in DMARC Record is None” to No Action

D. “Message Action when the Policy in DMARC Record is Reject” to Quarantine

Correct Answer: A

Question 2:

A network administrator notices that there are a high number of queries to the LDAP server. The mail logs show an entry “550 Too many invalid recipients | Connection closed by foreign host.” Which feature must be used to address this?

A. DHAP

B. SBRS

C. LDAP

D. SMTP

Correct Answer: D

Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/security/esa/esa12-0/user_guide/b_ESA_Admin_Guide_12_0/b_ESA_Admin_Guide_12_0_chapter_011010.html

Question 3:

An analyst creates a new content dictionary to use with Forged Email Detection. Which entry will be added to the dictionary?

A. mycompany.com

B. Alpha Beta

C. ^Alpha\ Beta$

D. [email protected]

Correct Answer: A

Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/products/collateral/security/email-security-appliance/whitepaper_C11-737596.html

Question 4:

What is the benefit of implementing URL filtering on the Cisco ESA?

A. removes threats from malicious URLs

B. blacklists spam

C. provides URL reputation protection

D. enhances reputation against malicious URLs

Correct Answer: C

Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/support/docs/security/email-security-appliance/118775-technote-esa-00.html

Question 5:

A company has deployed a new mandate that requires all emails sent externally from the Sales Department to be scanned by DLP for PCI-DSS compliance. A new DLP policy has been created on the Cisco ESA and needs to be assigned to a mail policy named `Sales\’ that has yet to be created.

Which mail policy should be created to accomplish this task?

A. Outgoing Mail Policy

B. Preliminary Mail Policy

C. Incoming Mail Flow Policy

D. Outgoing Mail Flow Policy

Correct Answer: A

Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/security/esa/esa12-0/user_guide/b_ESA_Admin_Guide_12_0/b_ESA_Admin_Guide_chapter_010001.html#task_1409483

Question 6:

Which feature must be activated on a Cisco ESA to combat backscatter?

A. Graymail Detection

B. Bounce Profile

C. Forged Email Detection

D. Bounce Verification

Correct Answer: D

Question 7:

A Cisco ESA administrator is creating a Mail Flow Policy to receive outbound emails from Microsoft Exchange. Which Connection Behavior must be selected to properly process the messages?

A. Delay

B. Accept

C. Relay

D. Reject

Correct Answer: C

Question 8:

A company security policy requires that the finance department have an easy way to apply encryption to their outbound messages that contain sensitive data. Users must be able to flag the messages that require encryption versus a Cisco ESA scanning all messages and automatically encrypting via detection. Which action enables this capability?

A. Create an outgoing content filter with no conditions and with the Encrypt and Deliver Now action configured with [SECURE] in the Subject setting.

B. Create a DLP policy manager message action with encryption enabled and apply it to active DLP policies for outgoing mail.

C. Create an encryption profile with [SECURE] in the Subject setting and enable encryption on the mail flow policy.

D. Create an encryption profile and an outgoing content filter that includes \[SECURE\] within the Subject Header: Contains condition along with the Encrypt and Deliver Now action.

Correct Answer: D

Question 9:

Which two statements about configuring message filters within the Cisco ESA are true? (Choose two.)

A. The filters command executed from the CLI is used to configure the message filters.

B. Message filter configuration within the web user interface is located within Incoming Content Filters.

C. The filterconfig command executed from the CLI is used to configure message filters.

D. Message filters can be configured only from the CLI.

E. Message filters can be configured only from the web user interface.

Correct Answer: AD

Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/support/docs/security/email-security-appliance/213940-esa-using-a-message-filter-to-take-act.html

Question 10:

Which two features of Cisco Email Security are added to a Sender Group to protect an organization against email threats? (Choose two.)

A. NetFlow

B. geolocation-based filtering

C. heuristic-based filtering

D. senderbase reputation filtering

E. content disarm and reconstruction

Correct Answer: CD

Question 11:

What is a valid content filter action?

A. decrypt on delivery

B. quarantine

C. skip antispam

D. archive

Correct Answer: B

Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/security/esa/esa12-0/user_guide/b_ESA_Admin_Guide_12_0/b_ESA_Admin_Guide_chapter_01010.html#con_1158022

Question 12:

The Cisco ESA is processing many messages that are sent to invalid recipients. To reduce this excessive processing, an engineer is preparing to use LDAP for recipient verification. Which two steps are required to accomplish this task? (Choose two.)

A. Configure LDAP server profiles.

B. Enable external LDAP authentication.

C. Configure the LDAP query.

D. Enable LDAP authentication on a listener.

E. Configure incoming mail policy to query LDAP server.

Correct Answer: AE

Question 13:

An engineer is configuring an SMTP authentication profile on a Cisco ESA which requires certificate verification. Which section must be configured to accomplish this goal?

A. Mail Flow Policies

B. Sending Profiles

C. Outgoing Mail Policies

D. Verification Profiles

Correct Answer: A

Question 14:

An email containing a URL passes through the Cisco ESA that has content filtering disabled for all mail policies. The sender is [email protected], the recipients are [email protected], [email protected], [email protected], and [email protected]. The subject of the email is Test Document395898847. An administrator wants to add a policy to ensure that the Cisco ESA evaluates the web reputation score before permitting this email.

Which two criteria must be used by the administrator to achieve this? (Choose two.)

A. Subject contains “TestDocument”

B. Sender matches test1.com

C. Email body contains a URL

D. Date and time of email

E.

Correct Answer: AC

Question 15:

DRAG DROP

Drag and drop the Cisco ESA reactions to a possible DLP from the left onto the correct action types on the right.

Select and Place:

Latest 300-720 dumps exam questions 15 online practice

Correct Answer:

Latest 300-720 dumps exam questions 15-1 online practice

Reference:

https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/security/esa/esa12-0/user_guide/b_ESA_Admin_Guide_12_0/b_ESA_Admin_Guide_chapter_010001.html (message actions)

Summarize:

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FromNumber of exam questionsPriceAssociated certifications
leads4pass15/220 (Full)FreeCCNP Enterprise

Question 1:

A corporation has recently implemented a BYOD policy at its HQ. Which two risks should the security director be concerned about? (Choose two.)

A. network analyzers

B. malware

C. lost and stolen devices

D. keyloggers

E. unauthorized users

Correct Answer: BC

https://ccbtechnology.com/byod-5-biggest-security-risks/ https://blogs.cisco.com/security/byod-many-call-it-bring-your-own-malware-byom

Question 2:

A Cisco WLC has been added to the network and Cisco ISE as a network device, but authentication is failing. Which configuration within the network device configuration should be verified?

A. SNMP RO community

B. device interface credentials

C. device ID

D. shared secret

Correct Answer: D

Question 3:

An engineer must implement intrusion protection in the WLAN. The AP coverage is adequate and on-channel attacks are the primary concern. The building is historic, which makes adding APs difficult. Which AP mode and submodel must be implemented?

A. Ap mode: local, Ap submodel: WIPS

B. Ap mode: monitor, Ap submodel: WIPS

C. Ap mode: monitor, Ap submodel: none

D. Ap mode: local, Ap submodel: none

Correct Answer: A

The on-channel says no need to scan other channels.

Question 4:

A user is trying to connect to a wireless network that is configured for WPA2-Enterprise security using a corporate laptop. The CA certificate for the authentication server has been installed on the

Trusted Root Certification Authorities are stored on the laptop. The user has been prompted to enter the credentials multiple times, but the authentication has not succeeded. What is causing the issue?

A. There is an IEEE invalid 802.1X authentication policy on the authentication server.

B. The user’s Active Directory account is locked out after several failed attempts.

C. There is an invalid 802.1X authentication policy on the authenticator.

D. The laptop has not received a valid IP address from the wireless controller.

Correct Answer: A

https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/solutions/Enterprise/Security/TrustSec_199/Dot1X_Deploy ment/ Dot1x_Dep_Guide.html

Question 5:

DRAG DROP

A network engineer must get an autonomous AP to authenticate to the upstream switch via IEEE 802.1 X. Drag and drop the commands from the left onto the right to complete the configuration.

Select and Place:

new Cisco 300-430 dumps exam questions 5

Correct Answer:

new Cisco 300-430 dumps exam questions 5-1

Question 6:

What are two considerations when deploying a Cisco Hyperlocation? (Choose two.)

A. NTP configuration is available, but not recommended.

B. The Cisco Hyperlocation feature must be enabled only on the wireless LAN controller.

C. After enabling Cisco Hyperlocation on Cisco CMX, the APs, and the wireless LAN controller must be restarted.

D. The Cisco Hyperlocation feature must be enabled on the wireless LAN controller and Cisco CMX.

E. If the Cisco CMX server is a VM, a high-end VM is needed for Cisco Hyperlocation deployments.

Correct Answer: DE

Question 7:

The Cisco Hyperlocation detection threshold is currently set to -50 dBm. After reviewing the wireless user location, discrepancies have been noticed. To improve the Cisco Hyperlocation accuracy, an engineer attempts to change the detection threshold to -100 dBm However, the Cisco Catalyst 9800 Series Wireless Controller does not allow this change to be applied. What actions should be taken to resolve this issue?

A. Place the APs to monitor the mode shut down the radios, and then change the Cisco Hyperlocation detection threshold

B. Shut down all radios on the controller, change the Cisco Hyperlocation detection range, and enable the radios again.

C. Disable Cisco Hyperlocation. Change the Cisco Hyperlocation detection threshold and then enable it

D. Create a new profile on Cisco CMX with the new Cisco Hyperlocation detection range, and apply it on the WL AN.

Correct Answer: C

Question 8:

An engineer has configured the wireless controller to authenticate clients on the employee SSID against Microsoft Active Directory using PEAP authentication. Which protocol does the controller use to communicate with the authentication server?

A. EAP

B. 802.1X

C. RADIUS

D. WPA2

Correct Answer: C

Question 9:

Refer to the exhibit.

new Cisco 300-430 dumps exam questions 9

Which two items must be supported on the VoWLAN phones to take full advantage of this WLAN configuration? (Choose two.)

A. TSPEC

B. SIFS

C. 802.11e

D. WMM

E. APSD

Correct Answer: CD

The 802.11e, WMM, and Cisco Compatible Extension specifications help balance and prevent the overloading of a cell with audio streams. CAC determines whether there is enough channel capacity to start a call; if not, the phone can scan for another channel https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/wireless/controller/8-1/Enterprise-Mobility-8-1-Design-Guide/Enterprise_Mobility_8-1_Deployment_Guide/Chapter-9.html

Question 10:

In a Cisco WLAN deployment, it is required that all APs from branch 1 remain operational even if the control plane CAPWAP tunnel is down because of a WAN failure to headquarters.

Which operational mode must be configured on the APs?

A. Disconnected

B. Connected

C. Lightweight

D. Standalone

Correct Answer: D

Question 11:

An engineer is adding APs to an existing VolMLAN to allow for location-based services. Which option will the primary change be to the network?

A. increased transmit power on all APs

B. Moving to a bridging model

C. AP footprint

D. cell overlap would decrease

E. triangulation of devices

Correct Answer: C

Question 12:

Which two events are outcomes of a successful RF jamming attack? (Choose two.)

A. disruption of WLAN services

B. unauthentication association

C. deauthentication broadcast

D. deauthentication multicast

E. physical damage to AP hardware

Correct Answer: AE

https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/wireless/mse/3350/72/wIPS_Configuration/Guide/wIPS_7 2/ msecg_appA_wIPS.html#wp1345929

Question 13:

An engineer is deploying a virtual MSE. The network has 3000 APs and needs 7000 IPS licenses. To which size server does the engineer scale it?

A. virtual

B. standard

C. high end

D. low end

Correct Answer: C

Question 14:

An engineer has successfully implemented 10 active RFID tags in an office environment. The tags are not visible when the location accuracy is tested on the Cisco CMX Detect and Locate window. Which setting on Cisco CMX allows the engineer to view the tags?

A. Enable hyperlocation services for RFID.

B. Enable RFID tags in tracking options

C. Enable probing clients for active tags.

D. Define an RFID group globally and add the tags.

Correct Answer: B

Question 15:

An engineer needs to configure an autonomous AP for 802.Ix authentication. To achieve the highest security an authentication server is used for user authentication During testing, the AP fails to pass the user authentication request to the authentication server.

Which two details need to be configured on the AP to allow the communicator? between the server and the AP? (Choose two.)

A. RADIUS IP address

B. Username and password

C. Group name

D. Shared secret

E. PAC encryption key

Correct Answer: AB


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300-430 ENWLSI exam solutions220 Questions and Answers300-430 dumps (PDF +VCE)
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Share some of the most important CCNP Enterprise 300-415 dumps exam materials for free

FromNumber of exam questionsAssociated certificationsLast updatedExam preparation
leads4pass15CCNP Enterprise300-415 dumpsExam Preparation
New Question 1:

DRAG DROP

Drag and drop the Cisco SD-WAN components from the left onto their functions on the right.

Select and Place:

CCNP Enterprise 300-415 dumps exam materials 1

Correct Answer:

CCNP Enterprise 300-415 dumps exam materials 1-1

New Question 2:

Which command verifies a policy that has been pushed to the vEdge router?

A. vSmart# show running-config policy

B. vEdge# show running-config data policy

C. vSmart# show running-config apply policy

D. vEdge# show policy from-smart

Correct Answer: D

Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/routers/sdwan/configuration/policies/vedge/policies-book.pdf

New Question 3:

A company deploys a Cisco SD-WAN solution but has an unstable Internet connection. When the link to vSmart comes back up, the WAN Edge router routing table is not refreshed, and some traffic to the destination network is dropped. The headquarters is the hub site, and it continuously adds new sites to the SD-WAN network. An engineer must configure route refresh between WAN Edge and vSmart within 2 minutes.

Which configuration meets this requirement?

A. omp no shutdown graceful-restart

timers

hold time 120

B. omp no shutdown graceful-restart

timers

advertisement-interval 120

C. omp

no shutdown

no graceful-restart

D. omp no shutdown graceful-restart

timers

eor-timer 120

Correct Answer: A

New Question 4:

In Cisco SD-WAN, what protocol is used for controlling connections between SD-WAN devices?

A. BGP

B. OSPF

C. DTLS

D. OMP

Correct Answer: C

In the reference link under the \’Control Plane Authentication\’ part, you can find the following:

Then, during the automatic authentication process, as pairs of devices (routers and controllers) are establishing DTLS control connections, each device compares the serial numbers (and for routers, the chassis numbers) to those in the files installed on the router.

DTLS is the connection that facilitates the exchange of OMP information between the devices. In vManage, the number of control connections also shows the amount of DTLS connections to/from a device. OMP is not the control connection, it\’s the control plane management protocol.

New Question 5:

Refer to the exhibit. An engineer is troubleshooting a control connection issue. What does “connect” mean in this show control connections output?

CCNP Enterprise 300-415 dumps exam materials 5

A. Control connection is down

B. Control connection is up

C. Control connection attempt is in progress

D. Control connection is connected

Correct Answer: C

Reference: https://community.cisco.com/t5/networking-documents/sd-wan-routers-troubleshoot-control-connections/ta-p/3813237

New Question 6:

An administrator wants to create a policy to add a traffic policer called “politer-ccnp” to police data traffic on the WAN Edge.

Which configuration accomplishes this task in vSmart?

CCNP Enterprise 300-415 dumps exam materials 6

A. Option A

B. Option B

C. Option C

D. Option D

Correct Answer: B

New Question 7:

Refer to the exhibit.

CCNP Enterprise 300-415 dumps exam materials 7

Customer XYZ cannot provision dual connectivity on both of its routers due to budget constraints but wants to use both R1 and R2 interlaces for users behind them for load balancing toward the hub site. Which configuration achieves this objective?

CCNP Enterprise 300-415 dumps exam materials 7-1

A. Option A

B. Option B

C. Option C

D. Option D

Correct Answer: A

New Question 8:

Refer to the exhibit.

CCNP Enterprise 300-415 dumps exam materials 8

Which two configurations are needed to get the WAN Edges registered with the controllers when certificates are used? (Choose two)

A. Generate a CSR manually within the vManage server

B. Generate a CSR manually on the WAN Edge

C. Request a certificate manually from the Enterprise CA server

D. Install the certificate received from the CA server manually on the WAN Edge

E. Install the certificate received from the CA server manually on the vManage

Correct Answer: AE

https://www.cisco.com/c/dam/en/us/td/docs/solutions/CVD/SDWAN/cisco-sd-wan-certificates-deploy-2020aug.pdf

New Question 9:

DRAG DROP

Drag and drop the vManage policy configuration procedures from the left onto the correct definitions on the right.

Select and Place:

CCNP Enterprise 300-415 dumps exam materials 9

Correct Answer:

CCNP Enterprise 300-415 dumps exam materials 9-1

Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/routers/sdwan/configuration/policies/vedge/policies-book/data-policies.html

New Question 10:

A large retail organization decided to move some of the branch applications to the AWS cloud. How does the network architect extend the in-house Cisco SD-WAN branch to the cloud network into AWS?

A. Create virtual WAN Edge devices Cloud through the AWS online software store

B. Create virtual instances of vSmart Cloud through the AWS online software store

C. Create GRE tunnels to AWS from each branch over the Internet

D. Install the AWS Cloud Router in the main data center and provide connectivity from each branch

Correct Answer: A

https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/solutions/CVD/SDWAN/Cisco_Cloud_onRamp_for_IaaS_AWS_Version2.html#_Toc54023359

New Question 11:

An enterprise is continuously adding new sites to its Cisco SD-WAN network. It must configure any cached routes flushed when OMP peers have lost adjacency. Which configuration allows the cached OMP routes to be flushed after every 24 hours from its routing table?

CCNP Enterprise 300-415 dumps exam materials 11
CCNP Enterprise 300-415 dumps exam materials 11-1

A. Option A

B. Option B

C. Option C

D. Option D

Correct Answer: A

New Question 12:

What is the benefit of the application-aware firewall?

A. It blocks traffic by MTU of the packet

B. It blocks encrypted traffic

C. It blocks traffic by application

D. It blocks traffic by MAC address

Correct Answer: C

Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/ios-xml/ios/sec_data_zbf/configuration/xe-16-9/sec-data-zbf-xe-16-9-book/sec-data-zbf-xe-16-9-book_chapter_0100100.html

New Question 13:

An administrator needs to configure SD-WAN to divert traffic from the company\’s private network to an ISP network. What action should be taken to accomplish this goal?

A. configure the data security policy

B. configure the application-aware policy

C. configure the control policy

D. configure the data policy

Correct Answer: D

New Question 14:

Refer to the exhibit.

CCNP Enterprise 300-415 dumps exam materials 14

An enterprise has a hub and spoke topology where it has several VPNs. An engineer must allow users in VPN91 to reach users in VPN92 and VPN10 to reach VPN91 and VPN92. Which configuration meets these requirements?

CCNP Enterprise 300-415 dumps exam materials 14-1
CCNP Enterprise 300-415 dumps exam materials 14-2

A. Option A

B. Option B

C. Option C

D. Option D

Correct Answer: C

New Question 15:

DRAG DROP

Drag and drop the BFD parameters from the left onto the BFD configurations on the right.

Select and Place:

CCNP Enterprise 300-415 dumps exam materials 15

Correct Answer:

CCNP Enterprise 300-415 dumps exam materials 15-1

https://sdwandocs.cisco.com/Product_Documentation/vManage_Help/Release_18.2/Configuration/Templates/BFD


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300-420 exam questions and answers 2023

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Number of exam questionsExam nameExam codeLast updated
15Designing Cisco Enterprise Networks (ENSLD)300-420300-420 dumps
Question 1:

Which consideration must be taken into account when using the DHCP relay feature in a Cisco SD-Access Architecture?

A. DHCP-relay must be enabled on fabric edge nodes to provide the correct mapping of DHCP scope to the local anycast gateway.

B. A DHCP server must be enabled on the border nodes to allow subnets to span multiple fabric edges.

C. DHCP servers must support Cisco SD-Access extensions to correctly assign IPs to endpoints in an SD-Access fabric with anycast gateway.

D. DHCP Option-82 must be enabled to map the circuit IP option to the access fabric node where the DHCP discovery originated.

Correct Answer: D

https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/cloud-systems-management/network-automation-and-management/dna-center/tech_notes/sda_dhcp/b_cisco_sda_dhcp.html

Question 2:

Which design consideration must be made when dual vEdge routers are deployed at a branch site?

A. Use BGP AS-path prepending to influence egress traffic and use MED to influence ingress traffic from the branch.

B. HSRP priorities must match the OMP routing policy to prefer one vEdge over the other.

C. Traffic must be symmetrical as it egresses the vEdges and returns from remote sites for DPI to function properly.

D. Configure BFD between vEdge routers to detect sub-second link failures.

Correct Answer: A

Question 3:

How are wireless endpoints registered in the HTDB in a Cisco SD-Access architecture?

A. Fabric edge nodes update the HTDB based on CAPPWAP messaging from the AP

B. Fabric WLCs update the HTDB as new clients connect to the wireless network

C. Border nodes first register endpoints and then update the HTDB

D. Fabric APs update the HTDB with the clients\’ ElD and RLOC

Correct Answer: B

Question 4:

Refer to the exhibit.

300-420 dumps questions 4

The full EIGRP routing table is advertised throughout the network. Currently, users experience data loss when any one link in the network fails. An architect must optimize the network to reduce the impact when a link fails. Which solution should the architect include in the design?

A. Run BFD on the interlinks between EIGRP neighbors.

B. Summarize the access layer networks from each access layer switch toward the aggregation layer.

C. Reduce the default EIGRP hello interval and hold time.

D. Summarize the access layer networks from the aggregation layer toward the core layer.

Correct Answer: A

Question 5:

Which OSPF area blocks LSA Type 3, 4, and 5, but allows a default summary route?

A. normal

B. stub

C. NSSA

D. totally stubby

Correct Answer: D

Question 6:

An engineer uses Postman and YANG to configure a router with: OSPF process ID 400 network 192.168.128.128/25 enabled for Area 0

Which get-config reply verifies that the model set was designed correctly?

300-420 dumps questions 6

A. Option A

B. Option B

C. Option C

D. Option D

Correct Answer: B

Question 7:

In an SD-WAN architecture, which methods are used to bootstrap a vEdge router?

A. DHCP options or manual configuration

B. manage or DNS records

C. ZTP or manual configuration

D. DNS records or DHCP options

Correct Answer: C

Question 8:

Which type of rendezvous point deployment is standards-based and supports dynamic RP discovery?

A. Auto-RP

B. Anycast-RP

C. bootstrap router

D. static RP

Correct Answer: C

Question 9:

Refer to the exhibit. An architect must create a stable and scalable EIGRP solution for a customer. The design must:

1.

conserve bandwidth, memory, and CPU processing

2.

prevent suboptimal routing

3.

avoid any unnecessary queries

Which two solutions must the architect select? (Choose two.)

300-420 dumps questions 9

A. route summarization

B. prefix lists

C. distribute lists

D. stub routing

E. static redistribution

Correct Answer: AC

Question 10:

Which two functions are provided by the Cisco SD-WAN orchestration plane? (Choose two.)

A. centralized provisioning

B. primary authentication point

C. NAT traversal facilitation

D. Zero Touch Provisioning

E. troubleshooting and monitoring

Correct Answer: BC

Question 11:

At which layer does Cisco Express Forwarding use adjacency tables to populate addressing information?

A. Layer4

B. Layer 2

C. Layer 1

D. Layer 3

Correct Answer: B

Question 12:

Refer to the exhibit. An engineer is designing a BGP solution for a client that peers with ISP1 for full Internet connectivity and with ISP2 for direct exchange of routes for several third parties. Which action, when implemented on the edge routers, enables the client network to reach the Internet through ISP1?

300-420 dumps questions 12

A. Run an eBGP session within different VRFs for each ISP.

B. Advertise a default route for downstream routers within the client network.

C. Apply the AS-path prepend feature for ISP2.

D. Apply route filtering such that the client advertises only routes originating from its own AS.

Correct Answer: B

Question 13:

DRAG DROP

Drag and drop the characteristics from the left onto the Yang model they describe on the right.

Select and Place:

300-420 dumps questions 13

Correct Answer:

300-420 dumps questions 12-1

Question 14:

Which PIM mode uses a shared tree only?

A. bidirectional

B. sparse

C. dense

D. source-specific

Correct Answer: A

In bidirectional mode, traffic is routed only along a bidirectional shared tree that is rooted at the rendezvous point (RP) for the group https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/ios-xml/ios/ipmulti_pim/configuration/xe-16/imc-pim-xe-16-book/imc-tech-oview.html

Question 15:

What is the purpose of a Cisco SD-Access underlay network?

A. to abstract IP-based connectivity from physical connectivity

B. to emulate LAN segments to transport Layer 2 frames over a Layer 3 network

C. to establish physical connectivity between switches and routers

D. to provide virtualization by encapsulating network traffic over IP tunnels

Correct Answer: C


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Update Dec 2022 300-430 dumps

300-430 ENWLSI is the acronym for Implementing Cisco Enterprise Wireless Networks exam certification, using 300-430 dumps to help you successfully pass the CCNP Collaboration 300-430 ENWLSI Certification Exam on the first attempt.

300-430 ENWLSI Certification Exam is one of the specific topics in the CCNP Collaboration concentration exam, and if you want to be certified by CCNP Collaboration, you will also need to take the CCNP Collaboration Core Exam (350-401 ENCOR), so, I recommend you to use the leads4pass 300-430 dumpshttps://www.leads4pass.com/300-430.html, to help you pass one of the CCNP Collaboration intensive exams, 350-401 dumps are available in leads4pass.

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Read some of the latest 300-430 Dumps exam questions and answers online

Number of exam questionsExam nameFromRelease timeLast updated
15Implementing Cisco Enterprise Wireless Networks (ENWLSI)leads4passDec 08, 2022300-430 dumps
New Question 1:

An engineer is responsible for a wireless network for an enterprise. The enterprise has distributed offices around the globe, and all APs are configured in FlexConnect mode. The network must be configured to support 802.11r and CCKM. What needs to be implemented to accomplish this goal?

A. Enable VLAN-based central switching.

B. Enable FlexConnect local authentication.

C. Enable FlexConnect local switching.

D. Create FlexConnect groups.

Correct Answer: D

new 300-430 dumps questions 1

New Question 2:

What is the default IEEE 802.1x AP authentication configuration on a Cisco Catalyst 9800 Series Wireless Controller?

A. EAP-PEAP with 802.1x port authentication

B. EAP-TLS with 802.1x port authentication

C. EAP-FAST with CAPWAP DTLS + port authentication

D. EAP-FAST with CAPWAP DTLS

Correct Answer: C

https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/wireless/controller/ewc/1612/configguide/ewc_cg_16_12/802_1x_support.pdf

New Question 3:

An engineer wants to configure WebEx to adjust the precedence and override the QoS profile on the WLAN. Which configuration is needed to complete this task?

A. Change the WLAN reserved bandwidth for WebEx

B. Create an AVC profile for WebEx

C. Create an ACL for WebEx

D. Change the AVC application WebEx-app-sharing to mark

Correct Answer: D

new 300-430 dumps questions 3

https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/wireless/controller/technotes/7-5/AVC_dg7point5.html

New Question 4:

The IT manager is asking the wireless team to get a report for all guest user associations during the past two weeks. In which two formats can Cisco Prime save this report? (Choose two.)

A. CSV

B. PDF

C. XLS

D. DOC

E. plain text

Correct Answer: AB

New Question 5:

What is an important consideration when implementing a dual SSID design for BYOD?

A. After using the provisioning SSID, an ACL that is used to make the client switch SSIDs forces the user to associate and traverse the network by MAC filtering.

B. If multiple WLCs are used, the WLAN IDs must be exact for the clients to be provisioned and traverse the network correctly.

C. SSIDs for this setup must be configured with NAC State-RADIUS NAC for the clients to authenticate with Cisco ISE, or with NAC State-ISE NAC for Cisco ISE to associate with the client.

D. One SSID is for provisioning and the other SSID is for gaining access to the network. The use of an ACL should not be enforced to make the client connect to the REAL SSID after provisioning.

Correct Answer: D

new 300-430 dumps questions 5

New Question 6:

For security purposes, an engineer enables CPU ACL and chooses an ACL on the Security > Access Control Lists > CPU Access Control Lists menu. Which kind of traffic does this change apply to, as soon as the change is made?

A. wireless traffic only

B. wired traffic only

C. VPN traffic

D. wireless and wired traffic

Correct Answer: D

New Question 7:

A healthcare organization notices many rogue APs and is concerned about a honeypot attack.

Which configuration must a wireless network engineer perform in Cisco Prime Infrastructure to prevent these attacks most efficiently upon detection?

A. Set the auto containment level to 0 and select the Ad Hoc Rogue AP containment option.

B. Set the auto containment level to 0 and select the Using Our SSID containment option

C. Set the manual containment level to 4 and select the Ad Hoc Rogue AP containment option.

D. Set the auto containment level to 4 and select the Using Our SSID containment option.

Correct Answer: C

New Question 8:

A company has a single WLAN configured for 802.1x authentication with the QoS set to Silver. This WLAN supports all corporate and BYOD access. A decision has been made to allow users to install Cisco Jabber on their personal mobile devices. Users report poor voice quality when using Jabber.

QoS is being applied only as a best effort. What must be configured to ensure that the WLAN remains on the Silver class and to ensure the Platinum class for Jabber?

A. Configure an AVC profile for the Jabber traffic and apply it to the WLAN.

B. Configure the WLAN to broadcast on 5 GHz radios only and allow Jabber users to con.

C. Enable Cisco Centralized Key Management on the WLAN so that the Jabber-enabled devices will connect.

D. Configure QoS on the mobile devices that have Jabber installed.

Correct Answer: A

https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/wireless/controller/technotes/81/Jabber_in_WLAN/b_Jabber_in_WLAN.html#reference_7B4539C91FBE4639ACF906F6F3931667

New Question 9:

A wireless engineer needs to implement client tracking. Which method does the angle of arrival use to determine the location of a wireless device?

A. received signal strength

B. triangulation

C. time distance of arrival

D. angle of incidence

Correct Answer: D

new 300-430 dumps questions 9

New Question 10:

After looking in the logs, an engineer notices that RRM keeps changing the channels for non-IEEE 802. 11 interferers. After surveying the area, it has been decided that RRM should not change the channel. Which feature must be enabled to ignore non-802.11 interference?

A. Avoid Cisco AP Load

B. Avoid Persistent Non-WIFI Interference

C. Avoid Foreign AP Interference

D. Avoid Non-802. 11 Noise

Correct Answer: B

Check the Avoid Non-802.11a (802.11b) Noise check box to cause the controller\’s RRM algorithms to consider noise (non-802.11 traffic) in the channel when assigning channels to lightweight access points, or uncheck it to disable this feature. For example, RRM may have access points to avoid channels with significant interference from nonaccess point sources, such as microwave ovens.

The default value is selected. Check the Avoid Persistent Non-WiFi Interference check box to configure the controller to stop ignoring persistent non-Wi-Fi interference in new channel calculation. The persistent non-Wi-Fi interference is considered during the metric calculation for channels.

https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/wireless/controller/9800/configure-guide/b_wi_16_10_cg/radio-resource-management.html

https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/wireless/controller/8-6/config-guide/b_cg86/radio_resource_management.html

New Question 11:

What is the default NMSP echo interval between Cisco MSE and a Wireless LAN Controller?

A. 10 seconds

B. 15 seconds

C. 30 seconds

D. 60 seconds

Correct Answer: B

new 300-430 dumps questions 11

New Question 12:

What must be configured on ISE version 2.1 BYOD when using Single SSID?

A. no authentication

B. WPA2

C. open authentication

D. 802.1x

Correct Answer: D

https://ciscocustomer.lookbookhq.com/iseguidedjourney/BYOD-configuration

New Question 13:

A customer has a distributed wireless deployment model where the WLCs are located in the data centers. Because the file servers are located in the data center, the traffic from the corporate WLAN “Corp-401266017” must go through the controllers, where the guest WLAN “Guest-19283746” traffic must use the local Internet line installed in each office. Which configuration will accomplish this task?

A. Disable Local Switching for the corporate and guest WLAN.

B. Disable Local Switching for the corporate WLAN and enable it for the guest WLAN.

C. Enable Local Switching for the corporate and guest WLAN.

D. Enable Local Switching for the corporate WLAN and disable it for the guest WLAN.

Correct Answer: C

New Question 14:

An engineer configured a Cisco AireOS controller with two TACACS+ servers. The engineer notices that when the primary TACACS+ server fails, the WLC starts using the secondary server as expected, but the WLC does not use the primary

server again until the secondary server fails or the controller is rebooted.

Which cause of this issue is true?

A. Fallback is enabled

B. Fallback is disabled

C. DNS query is disabled

D. DNS query is enabled

Correct Answer: B

new 300-430 dumps questions 14

New Question 15:

Which QoS level is recommended for guest services?

A. gold

B. bronze

C. platinum

D. silver

Correct Answer: B

new 300-430 dumps questions 15


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Number of exam questionsExam nameFromRelease timeLast updated
15Implementing and Operating Cisco Enterprise Network Core Technologies (ENCOR)leads4passDec 02, 2022350-401 dumps
New Question 1:

Which Python code snippet must be added to the script to save the returned configuration as a JSON-formatted file?

new 350-401 dumps questions 1

A. with open(“ifaces.json”, “w”) as OutFile: OutFile.write(Response. text)

B. with open(“ifaces.json”, “w”) as OutFile: OutFile.write(Response.json())

C. with open(“ifaces.json”, “w”) as OutFile: JSONResponse = JSON.loads(Response.text) OutFile.write(JSONResponse)

D. with open(“ifaces.json”, “w”) as OutFile: OutFile.write(Response)

Correct Answer: B

The JSON() method of the Response interface takes a Response stream and reads it to completion. It returns a promise which resolves with the result of parsing the body text as JSON.

New Question 2:

Refer to the exhibit.

new 350-401 dumps questions 2

Which configuration must be implemented to establish EBGP peering between R1 and R2?

new 350-401 dumps questions 2-1

A. Option A

B. Option B

C. Option C

D. Option D

Correct Answer: A

New Question 3:

An engineer must configure HSRP group 300 on a Cisco IOS router. When the router is functional, it must be the active HSRP router

The peer router has been configured using the default priority value.

Which three commands are required? (Choose three.)

A. standby 300 timers 1 110

B. standby 300 priority 90

C. standby 300 priority 110

D. standby version 2

E. standby 300 preempt

F. standby version 1

Correct Answer: CDE

New Question 4:

What are the differences between TCAM and the MAC address table?

A. The MAC address table is contained in CAM ACL and QoS information is stored in TCAM

B. The MAC address table supports partial matches. TCAM requires an exact match

C. Router prefix lookups happen in CAM. MAC address table lookups happen in TCAM.

D. TCAM is used to make Layer 2 forwarding decisions CAM is used to build routing tables

Correct Answer: A

https://community.cisco.com/t5/networking-documents/cam-content-addressable-memory-vs-tcam-ternarycontent/ta-p/3107938

When using Ternary Content Addressable Memory (TCAM) inside routers it\’s used for faster address lookup that enables fast routing. In switches Content, Addressable Memory (CAM) is used for building and lookup of mac address table that enables L2 forwarding decisions. Besides Longest-Prefix Matching, TCAM in today\’s routers and multilayer Switch devices are used to store ACL, QoS, and other things from upper-layer processing.

New Question 5:

Which two actions, when applied in the LAN network segment, will facilitate Layer 3 CAPWAP discovery for lightweight AP? (Choose two.)

A. Utilize DHCP option 17.

B. Configure the WLC IP address on the LAN switch.

C. Utilize DHCP option 43.

D. Configure an IP helper address on the router interface

E. Enable port security on the switch port

Correct Answer: CD

In a Cisco Unified Wireless network, the LAPs must first discover and join a WLC before they can service wireless clients.

However, this presents a question: how did the LAPs find the management IP address of the controller when it is on a different subnet?

If you do not tell the LAP where the controller is via DHCP option 43, DNS resolution of “Cisco-capwapcontroller.local_domain”, or statically configure it, the LAP does not know where in the network to find the management interface of the controller.

Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/support/docs/wireless/5500-series-wireless-controllers/119286lap-notjoin-wlc-tshoot.html

New Question 6:

CORRECT TEXT

BGP connectivity exists between Headquarters and both remote sites; however, Remote Site 1 cannot communicate with Remote Site 2. Configure BGP according to the topology to goals:

1.

Configure R1 and R3 under the BGP process to provide reachability between Remote Site 1 and Remote Site 2. No configuration changes are permitted on R2.

2.

Ensure that the /32 networks at Remote Site 1 and Remote Site 2 can ping each other.

new 350-401 dumps questions 6

R1

new 350-401 dumps questions 6-1

R3

new 350-401 dumps questions 6-2
new 350-401 dumps questions 6-3

A. See the solution below in Explanation-

B. Place Holder

C. Place Holder

D. Place Holder

Correct Answer: A

Solution:

On R1:

R1(config)#router BGP 123

R1(config-router)#address-family ipv4

R1(config-router-af)#neighbor 10.0.0.2 allows-in

On R3:

R3(config)#router bgp 123

R3(config-router)# address-family ipv4

R3(config-router-af)#neighbor 192.168.1.2 allows-in VERIFICATION:

R3#sh IP route BGP

The gateway of last resort is not set

1.0.0.0/32 is subnetted, 1 subnet

B 1.1.1.1 [20/0] via 192.168.1.2, 00:01:17

2.0.0.0/32 is subnetted, 1 subnet

B 2.2.2.2 [20/0] via 192.168.1.2, 00:05:06

10.0.0.0/24 is subnetted, 1 subnet

B 10.0.0.0 [20/0] via 192.168.1.2, 00:01:17

Test Ping from R3 to R1:

R3#ping 1.1.1.1

Type escape sequence to abort.

Sending 5, 100-byte ICMP Echos to 1.1.1.1, timeout is 2 seconds:

!!!!!

R3#ping 1.1.1.1 source lo0

Type escape sequence to abort.

Sending 5, 100-byte ICMP Echos to 1.1.1.1, timeout is 2 seconds:

A packet sent with a source address of 3.3.3.3

!!!!!

Success rate is 100 percent (5/5), round-trip min/avg/max = 1/1/1 ms

New Question 7:

How does CEF switching differ from process switching on Cisco devices?

A. CEF switching saves memory by sorting adjacency tables in dedicated memory on the line cards, and process switching stores all tables in the main memory

B. CEF switching uses adjacency tables built by the CDP protocol, and process switching uses the routing table

C. CEF switching uses dedicated hardware processors, and process switching uses the main processor

D. CEF switching uses a proprietary protocol based on IS-IS for MAC address lookup, and process switching uses in MAC address table

Correct Answer: B

Cisco Express Forwarding (CEF) switching is a proprietary form of scalable switching intended to tackle the problems associated with demand caching.

With CEF switching, the information which is conventionally stored in a route cache is split up over several data structures.

The CEF code is able to maintain these data structures in the Gigabit Route Processor (GRP), and also in slave processors such as the line cards in the 12000 routers.

The data structures that provide optimized lookup for efficient packet forwarding include:

1.

The Forwarding Information Base (FIB) table – CEF uses a FIB to make IP destination prefix-based switching decisions. The FIB is conceptually similar to a routing table or information base. It maintains a mirror image of the forwarding information contained in the IP routing table. When routing or topology changes occur in the network, the IP routing table is updated, and these changes are reflected in the FIB. The FIB maintains next-hop address information based on the information in the IP routing table.

2.

Because there is a one-to-one correlation between FIB entries and routing table entries, the FIB contains all known routes and eliminates the need for route cache maintenance that is associated with switching paths such as fast switching and optimum switching.

3.

Adjacency table – Nodes in the network are said to be adjacent if they can reach each other with a single hop across a link layer. In addition to the FIB, CEF uses adjacency tables to prepend Layer 2 addressing information. The adjacency table maintains Layer 2 next-hop addresses for all FIB entries.

CEF can be enabled in one of two modes:

1.

Central CEF mode – When CEF mode is enabled, the CEF FIB and adjacency tables reside on the route processor, and the route processor performs the express forwarding. You can use CEF mode when line cards are not available for CEF switching, or when you need to use features not compatible with distributed CEF switching.

2.

Distributed CEF (dCEF) mode – When dCEF is enabled, line cards maintain identical copies of the FIB and adjacency tables. The line cards can perform the express forwarding by themselves, relieving the main processor – Gigabit Route Processor (GRP) – of involvement in the switching operation. This is the only switching method available on the Cisco 12000 Series Router.

CEF uses an Inter-Process Communication (IPC) mechanism to ensure the synchronization of FIBs and adjacency tables on the route processor and line cards.

For more information about CEF switching, see Cisco Express Forwarding (CEF) White Paper.

New Question 8:

What function does vxlan perform in an SD-Access deployment?

A. policy plan forwarding

B. control plane forwarding

C. data plane forwarding

D. systems management and orchestration

Correct Answer: C

New Question 9:

An engineer must configure the strongest password authentication to locally authenticate on a router. Which configuration must be used?

A. username netadmin secret 5 $1$b1JUSkZbBS1Pyh4OzwXyZ1kSZ2

B. username netadmin secret $15b1JuSk404850110QzwXyZ1k SZ2

C. line Console 0 password $15b1Ju$

D. username netadmin secret 9 $9$vFpMfBelbRVV8SseX/bDAxtuV

Correct Answer: D

Scrypt is safer than MD5, so answer A is wrong and answer D is correct

R1(config)#username user secret 0 Specifies an UNENCRYPTED secret will follow5 Specifies an MD5 HASHED secret will follow8 Specifies a PBKDF2 HASHED secret will follow9 Specifies a SCRYPT HASHED secret will follow<0-9> Encryption types not explicitly specifiedLINE The UNENCRYPTED (cleartext) user secretLINE The UNENCRYPTED (cleartext) user secret

New Question 10:

DRAG DROP

Drag and drop the snippets onto the blanks within the code to construct a script that advertises the network prefox 192.168.5.0 session. Not all options are used.

Select and Place:

new 350-401 dumps questions 10

Correct Answer:

new 350-401 dumps questions 10-1

New Question 11:

A network engineer is configuring Flexible Netflow and enters these commands:

Sampler Netflow1 Mode random one-out-of 100 Interface fastethernet 1/0 Flow-sampler netflow1

Which are two results of implementing this feature instead of traditional Netflow? (Choose two.)

A. CPU and memory utilization are reduced.

B. Only the flows of top 100 talkers are exported

C. The data export flow is more secure.

D. The number of packets to be analyzed are reduced

E. The accuracy of the data to be analyzed is improved

Correct Answer: AD

New Question 12:

Which benefit is offered by a cloud infrastructure deployment but is lacking in an on-premises deployment?

A. efficient scalability

B. virtualization

C. storage capacity

D. supported systems

Correct Answer: A

New Question 13:

What are two device roles in Cisco SD-Access fabric? (Choose two.)

A. core switch

B. vBond controller

C. edge node

D. access switch

E. border node

Correct Answer: CE

There are five basic device roles in the fabric overlay:

+

Control plane node: This node contains the settings, protocols, and mapping tables to provide the endpoint-to-location (EID-to-RLOC) mapping system for the fabric overlay. + Fabric border node: This fabric device (for example, core layer device) connects external Layer 3 networks to the SDA fabric.

+

Fabric edge node: This fabric device (for example, access or distribution layer device) connects wired endpoints to the SDA fabric.

+

Fabric WLAN controller (WLC): This fabric device connects APs and wireless endpoints to the SDA fabric.

+

Intermediate nodes: These are intermediate routers or extended switches that do not provide any sort of SD-Access fabric role other than underlay services.

new 350-401 dumps questions 13

New Question 14:

What is a fact about Cisco EAP-FAST?

A. It does not require a RADIUS server certificate.

B. It requires a client certificate.

C. It is an IETF standard.

D. It operates in transparent mode.

Correct Answer: A

new 350-401 dumps questions 14

https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/support/docs/wireless-mobility/wireless-fixed/72788-CSSC-DeploymentGuide.html

New Question 15:

Refer to the exhibit. What is displayed when the code is run?

new 350-401 dumps questions 15

A. The answer is 25

B. The answer is 70

C. The answer is 5

D. The answer is 100

Correct Answer: A

The “magic” function receives a number, which is 5 from the main() in this question. This function returns a result of 5 + 2*10 = 25 and the str() function converts it into a string (“25”) before printing to the terminal.

new 350-401 dumps questions 15-1


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300-415 ENSDWI Exam

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Number of exam questionsExam nameFromRelease timeLatest updated
15Implementing Cisco SD-WAN Solutions (ENSDWI)leads4passNov 30, 2022300-415 dumps
New Question 1:

Refer to the exhibit.

new 300-415 dumps questions 1

A network administrator is configuring OMP in vManage to advertise all the paths for the same prefix from a site that has two WAN Edge devices Each WAN Edge device is connected to three ISPs and two private MPLS transports. What is the minimum value for \’ Number of Paths advertised per Prefix” that should be configured?

A. 2

B. 3

C. 5

D. 10

Correct Answer: D

New Question 2:

A network administrator is configuring QoS on a Vedge 5000 router and needs to enable it on the transport side interface. Which policy setting must be selected to accomplish this goal?

A. Cloud QoS Service side

B. Cloud QoS

C. Netflow

D. Application

Correct Answer: B

New Question 3:

What is a requirement for a WAN Edge to reach vManage, vBond, and vSmart controllers in a data center?

A. OMP

B. IGP

C. QoS

D. TLS

Correct Answer: B

https://www.cisco.com/c/dam/en/us/td/docs/solutions/CVD/SDWAN/sdwan-wan-edge-onboarding-deploy-guide-2020nov.pdf

New Question 4:

Which logs verify when a device was upgraded?

A. ACL

B. Email

C. SNMP

D. Audit

Correct Answer: D

Reference: https://sdwan-docs.cisco.com/Product_Documentation/vManage_Help/Release_18.4/Monitor/Audit_Log

New Question 5:

In a Cisco SD-WAN network, which component is responsible for distributing route and policy information via the OMP?

A. vManage

B. vSmart Controler

C. vBond Orchestrator

D. WAN Edge Router

Correct Answer: B

New Question 6:

An engineer is configuring a data policy for packets that must be captured through the policy. Which command accomplishes this task?

A. policy > data-policy > VPN-list > sequence > default-action > drop

B. policy > data-policy > VPN-list > sequence > action

C. policy > data-policy > VPN-list > sequence > default-action > accept

D. policy > data-policy > VPN-list > sequence > match

Correct Answer: B

https://www.cisco.com/c/dam/en/us/td/docs/routers/sdwan/configuration/config-18-4.pdf#page=357

New Question 7:

DRAG DROP

Drag and drop the attributes from the left that make each transport location unique onto the right.

Not all options are used.

Select and Place:

new 300-415 dumps questions 7

Correct Answer:

new 300-415 dumps questions 7-1

New Question 8:

DRAG DROP

Drag and drop the vManage policy configuration procedures from the left onto the correct definitions on the right.

Select and Place:

new 300-415 dumps questions 8

Correct Answer:

new 300-415 dumps questions 8-1

Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/routers/sdwan/configuration/policies/vedge/policies-book/data-policies.html

New Question 9:

Which protocol is used to measure the loss, latency, jitter, and liveliness of the tunnel between WAN Edge router peers?

A. OMP

B. NetFlow

C. BFD

D. IP SLA

Correct Answer: C

Reference: https://www.ciscolive.com/c/dam/r/ciscolive/emea/docs/2019/pdf/TECCRS-2014.pdf

New Question 10:

An engineer is tasked to improve throughput for connection-oriented traffic by decreasing round-trip latency Which configuration will achieve this goal?

A. turn on “Enable TCP Optimization”

B. turn off “Enhance ECMP Keying”

C. turn off “Enable TCP Optimization”

D. turn on “Enhance ECMP Keying”

Correct Answer: A

new 300-415 dumps questions 10

https://www.cisco.com/c/dam/en/us/td/docs/routers/sdwan/configuration/config-18-2.pdf#page=530

New Question 11:

Which two services are critical for zero-touch provisioning onboarding? (Choose two)

A. EMAIL

B. SNMP

C. AAA

D. DHCP

E. DNS

Correct Answer: DE

New Question 12:

Which API call retrieves a list of all devices in the network?

A. https://vmanage_IP_address/dataservice/system/device/{{model}}

B. http://vmanage_IP_address/dataservice/system/device/{{model}}

C. http://vmanage_IP_address/api-call/system/device/{{model}}

D. https://vmanage_IP_address/api-call/system/device/{{model}}

Correct Answer: A

Reference:

https://sdwan-docs.cisco.com/Product_Documentation/Command_Reference/Command_Reference/vManage_REST_APIs/ vManage_REST_APIs_Overview/Using_the_vManage_REST_APIs

New Question 13:

Refer to the exhibit.

new 300-415 dumps questions 13

A network administrator is setting the queueing value for voice traffic for one of the WAN Edge routers using vManager GUI. Which queue value be set to accomplish this task?

A. 0

B. 1

C. 2

D. 3

Correct Answer: A

Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/support/docs/routers/vedge-router/213408-implement-qos-in-cisco-sd-wan.html

New Question 14:

In Cisco SD-WAN, what protocol is used for controlling connections between SD-WAN devices?

A. BGP

B. OSPF

C. DTLS

D. OMP

Correct Answer: D

https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/routers/sdwan/configuration/security/vedge/security-book/security-overview.html

New Question 15:

DRAG DROP

Drag and drop the components from the left onto the corresponding Cisco NFV infrastructure Building Blocks on the right. Not all options are used.

Select and Place:

new 300-415 dumps questions 15

Correct Answer:

new 300-415 dumps questions 15-1


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Tips: Answers will be announced at the end of the article

QUESTION 1:

An engineer is tasked with designing a dual BGP peering solution with a service provider. The design must meet these conditions:

1. The routers will not learn any prefix with a subnet mask greater than /24.

2. The routers will determine the routes to include in the routing table based on the length of the mask alone.

3. The routers will make this selection regardless of the service provider configuration.

Which solution should the engineer include in the design?

A. Use a route map and access list to block the desired networks, and apply the route map to BGP neighbors inbound.

B. Use a route map and prefix list to block the desired networks, and apply the route map to BGP neighbors outbound.

C. Use an IP prefix list to block the desired networks and apply the IP prefix list to BGP neighbors outbound.

D. Use an IP prefix list to block the desired networks and apply the IP prefix list to BGP neighbors inbound.

QUESTION 2:

A company is using OSPF between its HQ location and a branch office. HQ is assigned area 0 and the branch office is assigned area 1. The company purchases a second branch office, but due to circuit delays to HQ, it decides to connect the new branch office to the creating branch office as a temporary measure. The new branch office is assigned area 2.

Which OSPF configuration enables all three locations to exchange routes?

A. The existing branch office must be configured as a stub area
B. A virtual link must be configured between the new branch office and HQ
C. A sham link must be configured between the new branch office and HQ
D. The new branch office must be configured as a stub area

QUESTION 3:

How is end-to-end microsegmentation enforced in a Cisco SD-Access architecture?

A. VLANs are used to segment traffic at Layer 2.
B. 5-tuples and ACLs are used to permit or deny traffic.
C. SGTs and SGTACLs are used to control access to various resources.
D. VRFs are used to segment traffic at Layer 3.

QUESTION 4:

Which two routing protocols allow for unequal cost load balancing? (Choose two.)

A. EIGRP
B. IS-IS
C. BGP
D. OSPF
E. RIPng

QUESTION 5:

DRAG DROP
Drag and drop the characteristics from the left onto the telemetry mode they apply to on the right.
Select and Place:

Correct Answer:

QUESTION 6:

How is redundancy achieved among Cisco vBond Orchestrators in a Cisco SD-WAN deployment?

A. The IP addresses of all Orchestrators are mapped to a single DNS name.
B. The closest Orchestrator to each Cisco WAN Edge router is selected.
C. Cisco WAN Edge routers are configured with all Orchestrators using their IP addresses and priority.
D. A single Cisco Orchestrator is deployed in each network.

QUESTION 7:

Refer to the exhibit. AS65533 and AS65530 are announcing a partial Internet routing table as well as their IP subnets.

An architect must create a design that ensures AS64512 does not become a transit AS. Which filtering solution must the architect choose?

A. no-advertise
B. next-hop
C. no-export
D. maximum-prefix

QUESTION 8:

Refer to the exhibit. An engineer must design an automatic failover solution. The solution should allow HSRP to detect a WAN 1 failure and initiate an automatic failover, making router R2 the active HSRP router. Which two solutions should the engineer choose? (Choose two.)

A. Implement Enhanced Object Tracking on roster R1
B. use a floating static route
C. Implement IP SLA on router R1
D. Implement PBR on router R1
E. use IP source routing

QUESTION 9:

Which two functions does the control plane node provide in a Cisco SD-Access architecture? (Choose two.)

A. LISP proxy ETR
B. host tracking database
C. policy mapping
D. map server
E. endpoint registration

QUESTION 10:

How is sub-second failure of a transport link detected in a Cisco SD-WAN network?

A. Hellos are sent between the WAN Edge routers and the vSmart controller.
B. BFD runs on the IPsec tunnels between WAN Edge routers.
C. BGP is used between WAN Edge routers and the vSmart controller.
D. Link state change messages are sent between vSmart controllers.

QUESTION 11:

Refer to the exhibit. The distribution switches serve as the layer 3 boundary. HSRP preemption is enabled. When the primary switch comes back after a failure, traffic is initially dropped. Which solution must be implemented to improve the design?

A. split-horizon
B. summarization
C. down bit
D. route tags

QUESTION 12:

Refer to the exhibit. An architect must design an IP addressing scheme for a multisite network connected via a WAN transit. The campus site must accommodate 12,000 devices and the branch sites must accommodate 1,000 devices.

Which address scheme optimizes network device resources, contains convergence events to the different blocks of the network, and ensures future growth of the network?

A. Campus: 10.0.0.0/18 Branch1: 10.0.192.0/21 Branch2: 10.0.200.0/21
B. Campus: 10.0.0.0/16 Branchi: 10.255.0.0/20 Branch2: 10.255.16.0/20
C. Campus: 10.0.0.0/10 Branch1: 10.64.0.0/10 Branch2: 10.128.0.0/10
D. Campus: 10.0.0.0/20 Branch1: 10.0.64.0/21 Branch2: 10.0.128.0/21

QUESTION 13:

A customer with an IPv4 only network topology wants to enable IPv6 connectivity while preserving the IPv4 topology services. The customer plans to migrate IPv4 services to the IPv6 topology, then decommission the IPv4 topology.

Which topology supports these requirements?

A. dual stack
B. 6VPE
C. 6to4
D. NAT64

Published answer:

Numbers:Q1Q2Q3Q4Q5Q6Q7Q8Q9Q10Q11Q12Q13
Answers:DBCACIMAGEADACBDBDAA

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Updated 2022.7

QUESTION 1:

A Cisco 8540 WLC manages Cisco Aironet 4800 Series APs and sends AoA data to a Cisco CMX 3375 Appliance for Hyperlocation. The load from the WLC is distributed to another virtual CMX server using CMX grouping. The virtual CMX server shows location RSSI data and not Hyperiocation. No AOA metrics are shown on the metrics page of the CMX virtual appliance under System > Metrics > Location Metrics.

How must the network administrator RESOLVE THIS ISSUE?

A. Allow port 2003 for AoA packets to flow through between the CMX appliances.
B. Enable Wireless > Access Points > Global configuration > Enable Hyperlocation on the WLC.
C. Use one Hyperlocation-enabled WL.C and CMX for AoA data
D. Enable the HALO module on the CMX appliance for the data collection

Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 2:

Where is Cisco Hyperlocation enabled on a Cisco Catalyst 9800 Series Wireless Controller web interface?

A. Policy Profile
B. AP Join Profile
C. Flex Profile
D. RF Profile

Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 3:

An engineer wants to upgrade the APs in a Cisco FlexConnect group. To accomplish this upgrade, the FlexConnect AP Upgrade setting will be used One AP of each model with the lowest MAC address in the group must receive the upgrade directly from the controller.

Which action accomplishes this direct upgrade?

A. Reboot all APs before the upgrade.
B. Remove the APs from the group
C. Do not set any master APs. 9 0
D. Allocate the master APs to different groups

Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 4:

The Cisco Hyperlocation detection threshold is currently set to -50 dBm. After reviewing the wireless user location, discrepancies have been noticed. To improve the Cisco Hyperlocation accuracy, an engineer attempts to change the detection threshold to -100 dBm However, the Cisco Catalyst 9800 Series Wireless Controller does not allow this change to be applied.

What actions should be taken to resolve this issue?

A. Place the APs to monitor the mode shutdown of the radios, and then change the Cisco Hyperlocation detection threshold

B. Shut down all radios on the controller, change the Cisco Hyperlocation detection range, and enable the radios again.

C. Disable Cisco Hyperlocation. change the Cisco Hyperlocation detection threshold and then enable it

D. Create a new profile on Cisco CMX with the new Cisco Hyperlocation detection range, and apply it to the WL AN.

Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 5:

A network engineer has been hired to perform a new MSE implementation on an existing network. The MSE must be installed in a different network than the Cisco WLC.

Which configuration allows the devices to communicate over NMSP?

A. Allow UDP/16113portonthe central switch.
B. Allow TCP/16666 port on the router.
C. Allow TCP/16113 port on the firewall.
D. Allow UDP/16666 port on the VPN router.

Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 6:

Which devices can be tracked with the Cisco Context-Aware Services?

A. wired and wireless devices
B. wireless devices
C. wired devices
D. Cisco certified wireless devices

Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 7:

A network engineer needs to configure multicast in the network. The implementation will use multiple multicast groups and PIM routers.

Which address provides automatic discovery of the best RP for each multicast group?

A. 224.0.0.13
B. 224.0.0.14
C. 224.0.1.39
D. 224.0.1.40

Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 8:

A Cisco CMX 3375 appliance on the 10.6.1 version code counts duplicate client entries, which creates wrong location analytics. The issue is primarily from iOS clients with the private MAC address feature enabled. Enabling this feature requires an upgrade of the Cisco CMX 3375 appliance in a high availability pair to version 10.6.3. SCP transfers the Cisco CMX image, but the upgrade script run fails.

Which configuration change resolves this issue?

A. Upgrade the high availability pair to version 10.6.2 image first and then upgrade to version 10.6.3.

B. Save configuration and use the upgrade script to upgrade the high availability pair without breaking the high availability.

C. Break the high availability using the cmxha config disable command and upgrade the primary and secondary individuality.

D. Run root patch to first upgrade to version 10.6.2 and then migrate to version 10.6.3.

Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 9:

An engineer has implemented 802.1x authentication on the wireless network utilizing the internal database of a RADIUS server. Some clients reported that they are unable to connect. After troubleshooting, it is found that PEAP authentication is failing. A debug showed the server is sending an Access-Reject message.

Which action must be taken to resolve authentication?

A. Use the user password that is configured on the server.
B. Disable the server certificate to be validated on the client.
C. Update the client certificate to match the user account.
D. Replace the client certificates from the CA with the server certificate.

Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 10:

An engineer configured a Cisco AireOS controller with two TACACS+ servers. The engineer notices that when the primary TACACS+ server fails, the WLC starts using the secondary server as expected, but the WLC does not use the primary server again until the secondary server fails or the controller is rebooted.

Which cause of this issue is true?

A. Fallback is enabled
B. Fallback is disabled
C. DNS query is disabled
D. DNS query is enabled

Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 11:

When configuring a Cisco WLC, which CLI command adds a VLAN with a VLAN ID of 30 to a FlexConnect group named BranchA-FCG?

A. config flexconnect BranchA-FCG vlan 30 add
B. config flexconnect group BranchA-FCG vlan add 30
C. config flexconnect group BranchA-FCG vlan 30 add
D. config flexconnect BranchA-FCG vlan add 30

Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 12:

Refer to the exhibit.

A network administrator deploys the DHCP profiler service in two ISE servers: 10.3.10.101 and 10.3.10.102. All BYOD devices connecting to WLAN on VLAN63 have been incorrectly profiled and are assigned as unknown profiled endpoints.

Which action efficiently rectifies the issue according to Cisco recommendations?

A. Nothing needed to be added to the Cisco WLC or VLAN interface. The ISE configuration must be fixed.

B. Disable DHCP proxy on the Cisco WLC.

C. Disable DHCP proxy on the Cisco WLC and run the IP helper-address command under the VLAN interface to point to DHCP and the two ISE servers.

D. Keep DHCP proxy enabled on the Cisco WLC and define a helper-address under the VLAN interface to point to the two ISE servers.

Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 13:

The marketing department creates a promotion video for the branch store. Only interested hosts must receive the video over wireless multicast.

What allows this feature?

A. DCA
B. WMM
C. WMF

Correct Answer: C

……

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Updated 2022.6

QUESTION 1:

Refer to the exhibit. An engineer must create a configuration that prevents R3from receiving the LSA about 172.16.1.4/32. Which configuration set achieves this goal? [Missing the exhibit]

A. On R3 ip access-list standard R4_L0 deny host 172.16.1.4 permit any
router ospf 200
distribute-list R4_L0 in

B. On R3 ip prefix-list INTO-AREA1 seq 5 deny 172.16.1.4/32 ip prefix-list INTO-AREA1 seq 10 permit 0.0.0.0/0 le 32
router ospf 200
area 1 filter-list prefix INTO-AREA 1 in

C. On R1 ip prefix-list INTO-AREA1 seq 5 deny 172.16.1.4/32 ip prefix-list INTO-AREA 1 seq 10 permit 0.0.0.0/0 le 32
router ospf 200
area 1 filter-list prefix IN TO-AREA1 in

D. On R1 ip prefix-list INTO-AREA1 seq 5 deny 172.16.1.4/32 ip prefix-list INTO-AREA1 seq 10 permit 0.0.0.0/0 le 32
router ospf 200
area 1 filter-list prefix INTO-AREA1 out

QUESTION 2:

Which AP mode allows an engineer to scan configured channels for rogue access points?

A. sniffer
B. monitor
C. bridge
D. local

QUESTION 3:

Refer to the exhibit.

The EtherChannel between SW2 and SW3 is not operational which action resolves this issue?

A. Configure the channel-group mode on SW2 Gi0/0 and Gi0/1 to on.
B. Configure the channel-group mode on SW3 Gi0/0 and Gi0/1 to active.
C. Configure the mode on SW2 Gi0/0 to the trunk.
D. Configure the mode on SW2 Gi0/1 to access.

QUESTION 4:

Refer to the exhibit.

A network engineer is configuring OSPF between router R1 and router R2. The engineer must ensure that a DR/BDR election does not occur on the Gigabit Ethernet interfaces in area 0. Which configuration set accomplishes this goal?

A. R1(config-if)interface Gi0/0 R1(config-if)ip ospf network point-to-point R2(config-if)interface Gi0/0
R2(config-if)ip ospf network point-to-point

B. R1(config-if)interface Gi0/0 R1(config-if)ip ospf network broadcast
R2(config-if)interface Gi0/0
R2(config-if)ip ospf network broadcast

C. R1(config-if)interface Gi0/0 R1(config-if)ip ospf database-filter all out
R2(config-if)interface Gi0/0
R2(config-if)ip ospf database-filter all out

D. R1(config-if)interface Gi0/0 R1(config-if)ip ospf priority 1
R2(config-if)interface Gi0/0
R2(config-if)ip ospf priority 1

QUESTION 5:

How does EIGRP differ from OSPF?

A. EIGRP is more prone to routing loops than OSPF
B. EIGRP has a full map of the topology, and OSPF only knows directly connected neighbors
C. EIGRP supports equal or unequal path cost, and OSPF supports only equal path cost.
D. EIGRP uses more CPU and memory than OSPF

……

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2022 350-401 [Q1]:

Which statements are used for error handling in Python?

A. try/catch
B. try/except
C. block/rescue
D. catch/release

Correct Answer: B

The words “try” and “except” are Python keywords and are used to catch exceptions.
For example:
try:
print 1/0
except ZeroDivisionError:
print \’ Error! We cannot divide by zero!!!\’

2022 350-401 [Q2]:

What is the function of a fabric border node in a Cisco SD-Access environment?

A. To collect traffic flow information toward external networks
B. To connect the Cisco SD-Access fabric to another fabric or external Layer 3 networks
C. To attach and register clients to the fabric
D. To handle an ordered list of IP addresses and locations for endpoints in the fabric.

Correct Answer: B

2022 350-401 [Q3]:

What are two benefits of virtualizing the server with the use of VMs in the data center environment? (Choose two.)

A. Increased security
B. reduced rack space, power, and cooling requirements
C. reduced IP and MAC address requirements

D. speedy deployment
E. smaller Layer 2 domain

Correct Answer: BD

Server virtualization and the use of virtual machines are profoundly changing data center dynamics. Most organizations are struggling with the cost and complexity of hosting multiple physical servers in their data centers. The expansion of the data center, a result of both scale-out server architectures and traditional “one application, one server” sprawl, has created problems in housing, powering, and cooling large numbers of underutilized servers. In addition, IT organizations continue to deal with the traditional cost and operational challenges of matching server resources to organizational needs that seem fickle and ever-changing. Virtual machines can significantly mitigate many of these challenges by enabling multiple application and operating system environments to be hosted on a single physical server while
maintaining complete isolation between the guest operating systems and their respective applications. Hence, server virtualization facilitates server consolidation by enabling organizations to exchange a number of underutilized servers for a single highly utilized server running multiple virtual machines. By consolidating multiple physical servers, organizations can gain several benefits:
+
Underutilized servers can be retired or redeployed.
+
Rack space can be reclaimed.
+
Power and cooling loads can be reduced.
+
New virtual servers can be rapidly deployed.
+
CapEx (higher utilization means fewer servers need to be purchased) and OpEx (few servers means a simpler environment and lower maintenance costs) can be reduced.

Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/solutions/collateral/data-centervirtualization/net_implementation_white_paper0900aecd806a9c05.html

2022 350-401 [Q4]:

Which IP SLA operation requires the IP SLA responder to be configured on the remote end?

A. ICMP echo
B. UDP jitter
C. CMP jitter
D. TCP connect

Correct Answer: B

Cisco IOS IP SLA Responder is a Cisco IOS Software component whose functionality is to respond to Cisco IOS IP SLA request packets. The IP SLA source sends control packets before the operation starts to establish a connection to the responder. Once the control packet is acknowledged, test packets are sent to the responder. The responder inserts a time-stamp when it receives a packet and factors out the destination processing time and adds timestamps to the sent packets. This feature allows the calculation of unidirectional packet loss, latency, and jitter measurements with the kind of accuracy that is not possible with ping or another dedicated probe testing.
The IP SLAs responder is a component embedded in the destination Cisco device that allows the system to anticipate and respond to IP SLAs request packets. The responder provides accurate measurements without the need for dedicated probes.
UDP Jitter measures the delay, delay variation(jitter), corruption, and misordering packet loss by generating periodic UDP traffic. This operation always requires an IP SLA responder.

Reference: https://www.ciscolive.com/c/dam/r/ciscolive/us/docs/2017/pdf/BRKNMS-3043.pdf https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/switches/lan/catalyst4500/12-2/46sg/configuration/guide/Wrapper-46SG/swipsla.pdf

2022 350-401 [Q5]:

Which statement about a fabric access point is true?

A. It is in local mode and must be connected directly to the fabric border node.
B. It is in FlexConnect mode and must be connected directly to the fabric border node.
C. It is in local mode and must connect directly to the fabric edge switch.
D. It is in FlexConnect mode and must be connected directly to the fabric edge switch.

Correct Answer: C

Fabric mode APs continue to support the same wireless media services that traditional APs support; apply AVC, quality of service (QoS), and other wireless policies; and establish the CAPWAP control plane to the fabric WLC. Fabric APs join as local-mode APs and must be directly connected to the fabric edge node switch to enable fabric registration events, including RLOC assignment via the fabric WLC. The fabric edge nodes use CDP to recognize APs as special wired hosts, applying special port configurations and assigning the APs to a unique overlay network within a common EID space across a fabric. The assignment allows management simplification by using a single subnet to cover the AP infrastructure at a fabric site.

Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/solutions/CVD/Campus/sda-sdg-2019oct.html

2022 350-401 [Q6]:

Which network devices secure API platforms?

A. next-generation intrusion detection systems
B. Layer 3 transit network devices
C. content switches
D. web application firewalls

Correct Answer: A

2022 350-401 [Q7]:

Which solution do laaS service providers use to extend a Layer 2 segment across a Layer 3 network?

A. VLAN
B. VTEP
C. VXLAN
D. VRF

Correct Answer: C

2022 350-401 [Q8]:

What is the function of the fabric control plane node In a Cisco SD-Access deployment?

A. It is responsible for policy application and network segmentation in the fabric.
B. It performs traffic encapsulation and security profiles enforcement in the fabric.
C. It holds a comprehensive database that tracks endpoints and networks in the fabric.
D. It provides Integration with legacy nonfabric-enabled environments.

Correct Answer: C

Fabric control plane node (C): One or more network elements that implement the LISP Map-Server (MS) and Map-Resolver (MR) functionality. The control plane node`s host tracking database keeps track of all endpoints in a fabric site and associates the endpoints to fabric nodes in what is known as an EID-to- RLOC binding in LISP.

Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/solutions/CVD/Campus/cisco-sda-macro-segmentation-deploy-guide.html

2022 350-401 [Q9]:

Which protocol is used to encrypt control plane traffic between SD-WAN controllers and SDWAN endpoints?

A. DTLS
B. IPsec
C. PGP
D. HTTPS

Correct Answer: A

2022 350-401 [Q10]:

Which two statements about IP SLA are true? (Choose two)

A. It uses NetFlow for passive traffic monitoring
B. It can measure MOS
C. The IP SLA responder is a component in the source Cisco device
D. It is Layer 2 transport-independent correct
E. It uses active traffic monitoring correct
F. SNMP access is not supported

Correct Answer: DE

IP SLAs allows Cisco customers to analyze IP service levels for IP applications and services, increase productivity, lower operational costs, and reduce the frequency of network outages. IP SLAs use active traffic monitoring the generation of traffic in a continuous, reliable, and predictable manner or measuring network performance. Being Layer-2 transport-independent, IP SLAs can be configured end-to-end over disparate networks to best reflect the metrics that an end-user is likely to experience. Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/ios-xml/ios/ipsla/configuration/15-mt/sla-15- mt-book/ sla_overview.html

2022 350-401 [Q11]:

DRAG-DROP
Drag and drop the characteristics from the left onto the infrastructure deployment models on the right.
Select and Place:

Correct Answer:

2022 350-401 [Q12]:

What is used to measure the total output energy of a Wi-Fi device?

A. dBi
B. EARP
C. mW

D. dBm

Correct Answer: C

Output power is measured in mW (milliwatts). answer \’dBi\’ milliwatt is equal to one thousandth (10-3) of a watt.

2022 350-401 [Q13]:

How does the RIB differ from the FIB?

A. The RIB is used to create network topologies and routing tables. The FIB is a list of routes to particular network destinations.

B. The FIB includes many routes and a single destination. The RIB is the best route to a single destination.

C. The RIB includes many routes to the same destination prefix. The FIB contains only the best route

D. The FIB maintains network topologies and routing tables. The RIB is a list of routes to particular network destinations.

Correct Answer: A

……

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