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[2018 Newest] Hot Microsoft Web Applications 70-487 Dumps Exam Files Update VCE Youtube Demo (Q1-Q15)

admin June 21, 2018

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Vendor: Microsoft
Certifications: Microsoft Web Applications
Exam Name: Developing Windows Azure and Web Services
Exam Code: 70-487
Total Questions: 113 Q&As

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Hot Microsoft Web Applications 70-487 Dumps Exam Questions And Answers (Q1-Q15)

QUESTION 1
You are building an ADO.NET Entity Framework application.
You need to validate the conceptual schema definition language (CSDL), store schema definition language (SSDL), and mapping specification language (MSL) files.
Which Entity Data Model tool can you use? (Each correct answer presents a complete solution. Choose all that apply.)
A. EDM Generator (EdmGen.exe)
B. ADO.NET Entity Data Model Designer
C. Entity Data Model Wizard
D. Update Model Wizard
Correct Answer: BC

QUESTION 2
You are designing an ASP.NET Web API application.
You need to select an HTTP verb to allow blog administrators to moderate a comment.
Which HTTP verb should you use?
A. GET
B. POST
C. DELETE
D. PUT
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 3
You are developing an ASP.NET MVC web application that contains the following HTML.
<table id= “customer” ></table>
You also have an ASP.NET Web API application that contains a call for retrieving customers.
You must send and retrieve the data in the most compact format possible.
You need to update the HTML for the customers table to contain data from the Web API application.
Which script segment should you use?
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Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 4
You are planning to migrate websites from IIS 6 to IIS 7.5.
You do not have access to SSH or a VPN.
You need to select a deployment tool to securely migrate the websites.
Which tool should you use?
A. RoboCopy
B. Web Deploy
C. Microsoft command-line FTP
D. xCopy
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 5
You are developing an ASP.NET MVC application.
Applications can be deployed to remote servers only by administrators who have elevated privileges. The administrators do not have access to Visual Studio 2012.
You need to select a deployment tool to deploy the application to remote servers for testing.
Which tool should you use?
A. Copy Web Site Tool
B. One-Click Publish
C. Publish Web Site Tool
D. Web Deployment Package
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 6
You are preparing to develop a set of libraries for a company.
The libraries must be shared across the company.
You need to create a remote NuGet feed that exposes the libraries.
What should you do? 70-487 dumps (Each answer presents part of the solution. Choose all that apply.)
A. Install the NuGet.Feed Package.
B. Install the NuGet.Server Package.
C. Configure the Packages folder located in the system.webserver section of the web application’s Web.config.
D. Create a new Empty Web Site in Visual Studio 2012.
E. Configure the Packages folder located in the appSettings section of the web application’s Web.config.
F. Add packages to the Packages folder.
G. Create a new Empty Web Application in Visual Studio 2012.
Correct Answer: BEFG

QUESTION 7
You develop an ASP.NET MVC application that is secured by using SSL. You are ready to deploy the application to production.
The deployment package must include the installation of the SSL certificate.
You need to configure the deployment package to meet the requirement.
What should you do?
A. Create a web publish pipeline target file with a custom web deploy target.
B. In the Package/Publish settings of the project, select the All Files in this project option.
C. Extend the CopyAllFilesToSingleFolder target in the project file.
D. In the Build Events settings of the project, configure a pre-build event to include the SSL certificate.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 8
You are developing a library to support multiple ASP.NET MVC web applications on a shared server. The library provides implementations of security algorithms.
If a problem with any of the security algorithms is discovered, a new version of the library must be created and deployed. Application downtime during the update must be minimized.
You need to ensure that the new version of the library will be used by all applications as soon as possible.
What should you do?
A. Build the web applications and include the security assembly as an embedded resource.
When an update is needed, copy the new assembly to the bin directory for the application.
B. Sign all assemblies in each application with the same key used to sign the security assembly.
When an update is needed, create a new key pair and re-sign all assemblies.
C. Build the security assembly as a netmodule in a shared location.
Use the assembly linker to merge the netmodule into the assemblies for the application.
When an update is needed, update the netmodule in the shared location.
D. Install the security assembly in the Global Assembly Cache (GAC).
When an update is needed, update the assembly in the GAC.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 9
You are developing a .NET application that uses the HttpClient type to call an ASP.NET Web API application. The API call returns a list of customers in JSON format and logs the results.
The URI for the API call is in a variable named address.
You need to make the API call without blocking.
Which code segment should you use?
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Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 10
You are developing an ASP.NET MVC application. The application has a page that updates an image stored in a database. Members of the EntityClient namespace are used to access an ADO.NET Entity Framework data model. Images and associated metadata are stored in a single database table.
You need to run a single query that updates an image and associated metadata in the database while returning only the number of affected rows.
Which method of the EntityCommand type should you use?
A. ExecuteNonQuery()
B. ExecutcScalar()
C. ExecuteDbDataReader()
D. ExecuteReader()
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 11
You are developing a new ASP.NET MVC application that does not have an existing database.
The requirements for the application are not complete, and the SQL data model will likely change.
You need to choose an approach to visually manage a data model.
Which approach should you use?
A. Physical First
B. Database First
C. Code First
D. Model First
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 12
You are designing an ASP.NET Web API application.
You need to select an HTTP verb to allow blog administrators to modify the text of a comment.
Which HTTP verb should you use?
A. GET
B. DELETE
C. POST
D. PUT
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 13
You are preparing to develop a set of libraries that uses large data sets.
The libraries must be shared across an organization and distributed to several servers.
You need to create a remote NuGet feed that exposes the libraries for developer use.
What should you do? (Each answer presents part of the solution. Choose all that apply.)
A. Add packages to the Packages folder.
B. Create a new Empty Web Application in Visual Studio.
C. Configure the Packages folder located in the appSettings section of the web application’s Web.config.
D. Install the NuGet.DataFeed Package.
E. Install the NuGet.Server Package.
F. Create a new Empty Web Site in Visual Studio.
Correct Answer: ACEF

QUESTION 14
You are developing an ASP.NET MVC application that reads and writes data from a SQL Server database. 70-487 dumps
You need to maintain data integrity including retrieving identical sets across reads in all situations that use transactions.
Which isolation level should you use?
A. Repeatable
B. Serializable
C. ReadUncommitted
D. ReadCommitted
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 15
You are developing an ASP.NET MVC application. The application is an order processing system that uses the ADO.NET Entity Framework against a SQL Server database. It has a controller that loads a page that displays customers.
Customers are filtered on Country and, if provided, on CompanyName.
You have an Entity Framework context named db.
The Customer class is shown below.
70-487 dumps
You need to execute a single deferred query to return the filtered list of customers.
Which code segment should you use?

Correct Answer: C

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[2018 Newest] Latest Cisco CCNA Collaboration 210-060 Dumps Exam Questions And Verified Answers Youtube Free Demo (Q1-Q30)

admin May 31, 2018

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Vendor: Cisco
Certifications: CCNA Collaboration
Exam Name: Implementing Cisco Collaboration Devices v1.0
Exam Code: 210-060
Total Questions: 235 Q&As

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Latest Cisco CCNA Collaboration 210-060 Dumps Exam Questions And Verified Answers (Q1-Q30)

QUESTION 1
The Voice engineer in your company need to change IP address destination on SIP-Trunk on near side?
A. reset trunk on near side
B. reset trunk on far side
C. reset trunk on far and near side
D. restart call manager service
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 2
What is the recommended maximum one-way latency for voice and video networks?
A. 100 ms
B. 150 ms
C. 200 ms
D. 300 ms
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 3
An end user has an 7945 IP phone, but is unable to launch any of the IP phone applications. A network engineer has confirmed that the device is subscribed to the appropriate applications in Cisco Unified Communications Manager.
How should the engineer instruct the user to launch the IP phone applications?
A. Select the “?” button on the IP phone.
B. Select the globe button on the IP phone.
C. Select Settings > User Preferences.
D. Select Settings > Device Configuration.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 4
Use the router console to view the configuration and answer the question.
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When a call is placed from the Branch Router phone to the PSTN number of 914085551212, the call is failing. What dial-peer is supposed to be used and why is the call failing? Select 2 (two)
A. dial-peer voice 910 pots
B. dial-peer voice 9 pots
C. dial-peer voice 9001 voip
D. destination pattern is incorrect
E. prefix is missing from the dial-peer
F. the port assignment is incorrect in the dial-peer
G. the port number is missing in the dial-peer
Correct Answer: BF

Explanation:
The dial 9, 910, and 9001 dial peer configurations are shown below:
210-060 dumps

Here we see that dial peer 9 and 910 match the same destination pattern, but 9 will be used first. However, the port used should be 0/0/0:15 not 0/0/0:12.

QUESTION 5
An engineer receives a service ticket because a user cannot log into Cisco Unified CM User Options. Where can the engineer verify that the user account is active?
A. LDAP System Configuration
B. LDAP Directory
C. End User Configuration
D. LDAP Authentication
E. Route Plan Report
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 6
A user reports that several IP phones in a single department are displaying a continuous “registering” message. Which fault domain should be investigated? 210-060 dumps
A. network router
B. Cisco Unified Communications Manager subscriber node
C. network switch
D. IP phones
E. SIP gateway
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 7
User A notices echo on a call with user B. Both users are using Cisco VoIP phones. User B is using a headset, and user A is using a handset. What is the most likely source of the echo?
A. user A handset
B. user B headset
C. disabled echo cancellation on user A phone profile
D. disabled echo cancellation on user B phone profile
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 8
What is needed to support SIP Early Media?
A. Media Termination Point
B. Transcoder
C. Annunciator
D. Conference Bridge
E. DSP
F. Route List
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 9
Which three characteristics are associated with voice? (Choose three.)
A. greedy
B. TCP retransmits
C. UDP priority
D. delay sensitive
E. drop insensitive
F. benign
G. benign or greedy
Correct Answer: CDF

QUESTION 10
With GETVPN, if a key server is configured to use multicast as the rekey transport mechanism, then under which of these conditions will the key server retransmit the rekey messages?
A. It never retransmit the rekey messages
B. it only retransmit the rekey message when it does not receive the rekey acknowledgment from at least one group member
C. it only retransmit the rekey message when it does not receive the rekey acknowledgment from all group member
D. it only retransmit the rekey message when DPD to the group members fails
E. it always retransmit the rekey message
Correct Answer: E

QUESTION 11
In an effort to proactively manage IP telephony infrastructure, a network engineer wants to review usage reports that provide top five users, top five calls, and traffic summary. Which option describes where this information can be retrieved using Cisco Unified Communications Manager?
A. Navigate to Cisco Unified CM Administration > CDR Analysis and Reporting >System Reports > System Overview > Select desired reports.
B. Navigate to Cisco Unified Operating System Administration > Tools > System Reports > System Overview > Select desired reports.
C. Navigate to Cisco Unified Serviceability > Tools > CDR Analysis and Reporting > System Reports > System Overview > Select desired reports.
D. Navigate to Cisco Unified Reporting > Tools > System Reports > System Overview > Select desired reports.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 12
After getting reports that users cannot make calls out to the PSTN, a network administrator opens the Cisco Unified Communications Manager Administration web page and begins to review route patterns. Why would the administrator look here when troubleshooting PSTN connectivity troubles?
A. A route pattern contains a list of gateways that can reach the PSTN.
B. A route pattern contains dial plan information for calling the PSTN.
C. A route pattern contains the necessary privileges for calling the PSTN.
D. A route pattern contains a list of SIP trunks that can reach the PSTN.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 13
An engineer is adding a third-party video endpoint to Cisco Unified Communications Manager. Which third-party device type should be used when adding the system?
A. SCCP
B. SIP
C. MGCP
D. H.323
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 14
How can an administrator determine which codec is being used between two endpoints while a call is in progress?
A. Run the codec trace in Cisco Unified Communication Manager.
B. Use Cisco Unified Serviceability network trace.
C. Can only be seen in Cisco SDI traces.
D. Can only be seen in a sniffer trace.
E. Press the ? button twice on one of the IP phones.
Correct Answer: E

QUESTION 15
Which three network elements are crucial when deploying VoIP devices? (Choose three.)
A. Round-trip time
B. QoS markings
C. Bandwidth
D. Ethernet
E. Fibre
F. Token ring
Correct Answer: ABC

QUESTION 16
Which type of data file is used for bulk import of users into Cisco Unity Connection?
A. .xls
B. .doc
C. .csv
D. .pdf
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 17
To control telephony costs, management wants to restrict who can place long distance calls. Which two options allow for this restriction? (Choose two.)
A. calling search space
B. partitions
C. route groups
D. SIP trunk
E. gateway
Correct Answer: AB

QUESTION 18
An end user reports that conference calls are failing. Which fault domain should be investigated first?
A. IP phone
B. Cisco Unified Communications Manager Media Resources
C. voice gateways
D. network routers and switches
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 19
Which two tools can be used to measure the quality of a VoIP call? 210-060 dumps (Choose two.)
A. QoS configuration tool
B. mean opinion score tool
C. bulk administration tool
D. jitter compensation tool
E. rFactor tool
Correct Answer: BE

QUESTION 20
Which three locations can an administrator import from to create users on Cisco Unity Connection? (Choose three.)
A. Bulk administration tool
B. LDAP
C. Cisco Unified Communications Manager via AXL
D. Outlook
E. Presence
F. Cisco Compatible Extensions
Correct Answer: ABC

QUESTION 21
Which Cisco Unified Communications Manager device report provides key information to determine if an additional gateway is needed?
A. Gateway utilization
B. Gateway summary
C. Gateway detail
D. Gateway and line group utilization
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 22
Which three choices are functions or features of Cisco Unity Connection? (Choose three.)
A. video-enabled messaging through converged networks
B. text-to-speech, which allows access to Exchange emails from a telephone
C. voice-enabled message navigation
D. voice-enabled dialing to external users
E. automated attendant capabilities
F. automated call rerouting to agents through round robin, longest idle, or broadcast
Correct Answer: BCE

QUESTION 23
A network engineer must set up an end-user account for a SIP device to use for authentication. Which end-user information is used for SIP authentication?
A. account ID
B. password
C. PIN
D. digest credentials
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 24
An engineer is configuring the Cisco Unified Communications Manager disaster recovery system. Which three statements about the disaster recovery system are true? (Choose three.)
A. It requires the use of schedules for backups.
B. Backup files are encrypted using the cluster security password.
C. If the backup device is listed in a backup schedule, it cannot be manually deleted.
D. If the backup does not complete within 40 hours, the backup times out.
E. Archiving backups to tape drives is supported.
F. SSL is used between the master and local agents.
Correct Answer: BCF

QUESTION 25
Which option is added number phone configuration is Cisco Unified Communicator Manager to add conference bridge resource to the phone
A. Media Resource Group
B. Conference Resource list
C. Conference Bridge
D. Media Resource Group List
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 26
End user is on a cisco telepresence session with remote participant and can control the camera at the remote endpoint. Which feature is underlying?
A. FECC
B. DTMF
C. FEC
D. PIP
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 27
A voice engineer has installed an XML-based phone application from a third party and subscribed a user’s 7945 IP phone to the application. Which action does the user take to launch the new service on the IP phone?
A. Select the Applications button on the 7945 IP phone.
B. Select Settings > Applications.
C. Select Settings > Network > Applications.
D. Select the Services button on the 7945 IP phone.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 28
Which two explanations of DTMF dialing are true? (Choose two.)
A. DTMF dialing consists of simultaneous voice-band tones generated when a button is pressed on a telephone.
B. The use of DTMF enables support for advanced telephony services.
C. DTMF dialing uses INVITE messages to signal when the first digit is pressed in a new call.
D. DTMF dialing consists of a simultaneous digital-band pulse generated when a button is pressed on a telephone.
Correct Answer: AB

QUESTION 29
A Cisco administrator is asked to set up two new end users in Cisco Unified Communication Manager. Which two fields are required? 210-060 dumps (Choose two.)
A. First Name
B. User ID
C. PIN
D. Telephone Number
E. Password
F. Last Name
Correct Answer: AD

QUESTION 30
A user reports that during calls they hear excessive hissing when neither party is talking.
Which option is one cause of this noise?
A. QoS
B. LoPS
C. VAD
D. EPL
E. SRST
Correct Answer: C

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[2018 Newest] 100% Pass Microsoft Dynamics 365 MB2-718 Dumps Exam Practice Update Youtube Demo (Q1-Q30)

admin May 22, 2018

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Vendor: Microsoft
Certifications: Microsoft Dynamics 365
Exam Name: Microsoft Dynamics 365 for Customer Service
Exam Code: MB2-718
Total Questions: 90 Q&As

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Microsoft Dynamics 365 Real MB2-718 Dumps Exam Practice Questions And Answers (Q1-Q30)

QUESTION 1
You attempt to delete a queue in Microsoft Dynamics 365. You are not able to delete the queue.
What are two possible reasons why you cannot delete the queue? Each correct answer presents a complete solution.
A. The queue contains a queue item.
B. The queue has a designated email address.
C. The queue is referenced by a routing rule.
D. The queue has a team owner.
Correct Answer: CD

QUESTION 2
You create a service level agreement (SLA) for cases where the case priority is critical. The SLA must display a warning after 15 minutes and fail after 30 minutes.
You create a normal priority case at 16:00. You change the priority to critical at 16:15. If no action is taken, how many minutes will elapse before the SLA fails?
A. 15 minutes
B. 30 minutes
C. 145 minutes
D. 60 minutes
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 3
Which two actions can you perform by using entitlement channels? Each correct answer presents a complete solution.
A. Specify the number of customers allowed to use each channel ___
B. Restrict users from creating cases by using specified channels.
C. Restrict the number of child cases allowed for each parent case with a specified channel.
D. Specify the number of cases allowed for each channel.
Correct Answer: AB

QUESTION 4
You have a Microsoft Dynamics 365 environment. You implement Field Service. You need to update a work order to indicate that you are traveling to the client.
Which field in the Field Service mobile app should you update?
A. Booking Status
B. Start Time
C. Actual Arrival Time
D. System Status
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 5
You use the Field Service application.
You need to track users and equipment that are available for scheduling.
Which resource type should you use?
A. Bookable Resource
B. Warehouse Resource
C. Resource Group
D. Web Resource
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 6
Which two statements regarding the Unified Service Desk (USD) debugger are true? Each correct answer presents a complete solution.
A. Yellow highlights are used to indicate a warning regarding an action call.
B. Red highlights are used to indicate the failure of an event
C. You can view a replacement parameter list.
D. You can run an action call on demand.
Correct Answer: AB

QUESTION 7
Which two statements regarding Microsoft Power BI dashboards are true? Each correct answer presents a complete solution.
A. Visualizations can display up to 5,000 records.
B. You can use Microsoft One Drive for Business as a data connection.
C. You can examine data by using natural language capabilities.
D. You can add up to six visualizations.
Correct Answer: BC

QUESTION 8
You need to search for a specific knowledge base article by number. MB2-718 dumps
Which two options can you use? Each correct answer presents a complete solution.
A. Service Area
B. Relevance Search
C. Categorized Search
D. Article Template Quick Find
Correct Answer: AC

QUESTION 9
You use the interactive service hub for your daily work. You identify a knowledge base article that can assist with an open case for a customer.
You need to send the article to the customer. What should you do?
A. Create a new email record and set the regarding object to the knowledge base article.
B. Use Microsoft Skype for Business to send a link to the customer.
C. Send a link to the customer by using Email a link.
D. Search the knowledge base from within the case, and use the Link Article and Email Content option.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 10
A user selects a case from a queue and studies the queue item details for the case. Which two data points are displayed? Each correct answer presents a complete solution.
A. the user who owns the case
B. the time spent working on the case
C. the queue the case is related to
D. the user working on the case
Correct Answer: BD

QUESTION 11
Which queue type is created when you add a user to Dynamics 365?
A. System
B. Personal
C. Escalation
D. Shared
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 12
You manage a Microsoft Dynamics 365 deployment You need to enable editable grids for an entity. What should you do?
A. Customize the entity.
B. Use the System Customizer tool.
C. Configure the Microsoft Dynamics CRM for Outlook add-in.
D. Modify the system settings.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 13
Which three of the following are valid survey response actions?
A. Restart Survey
B. Toggle Visibility
C. Auto-Populate
D. End Survey
E. Chain Survey
Correct Answer: ADE

QUESTION 14
The time period for a goal was not set correctly. You need to ensure that a user can correct the goal. What should you do?
A. Change the manager for the goal.
B. Add a new goal metric.
C. Add a child goal with the correct time period that is owned by the user.
D. Add a parent goal with the correct time period that is owned by the user.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 15
You create a Voice of the Customer survey.
You need to configure an automatic response each time a customer completes the survey.
Which feature or component should you use?
A. rule
B. piped data
C. linked question
D. Microsoft Azure Content Delivery Network (CDN)
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 16
You have the Customer service representative security role. You apply a filter to the active case system view. You need to save the view. What should you do? MB2-718 dumps
A. Create a personal view.
B. Save the filtered view.
C. Pin the view.
D. Use Save As and give the view a new name.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 17
You create and activate an entitlement. The start and end dates for the entitlement are in the future. What is the status of the entitlement?
A. Not started
B. On Hold
C. Pending
D. Waiting
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 18
You release an item from a queue.
What is the outcome?
A. The current routing rule is applied.
B. The value from the Worked By field is removed.
C. The record is returned to the originating queue.
D. The record is removed from the current queue and placed in the user’s personal queue.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 19
Your organization uses enhanced service level agreements (SLA’s).
You need to create a view that displays the SLA failure and succeeded time for data related to a case.
Which entity should you use to select the fields?
A. SLA
B. enhanced SLA C
C. SLA KPI Instance
D. SLA Item
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 20
What are Field Service Agreements?
A. frameworks for automatically generating work orders and invoices
B. methods to help users verify what the customers are eligible for and create cases for customers
C. methods to allow users to organize, prioritize, and monitor the progress of their work
D. deflations for the level of service or support that your organization agrees to offer to a customer
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 21
You have a Microsoft Dynamics 365 environment. You implement Field Service. You need to update a work order to indicate that you are traveling to the client.
Which field in the Field Service mobile app should you update?
A. Booking Status
B. Start Time
C. Actual Arrival Time
D. System Status
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 22
You use the Field Service application.
You need to track users and equipment that are available for scheduling.
Which resource type should you use?
A. Bookable Resource
B. Warehouse Resource
C. Resource Group
D. Web Resource
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 23
Which two statements regarding the Unified Service Desk (USD) debugger are true? Each correct answer presents a complete solution.
A. Yellow highlights are used to indicate a warning regarding an action call.
B. Red highlights are used to indicate the failure of an event
C. You can view a replacement parameter list.
D. You can run an action call on demand.
Correct Answer: AB

QUESTION 24
Which two statements regarding Microsoft Power BI dashboards are true? Each correct answer presents a complete solution.
A. Visualizations can display up to 5,000 records.
B. You can use Microsoft One Drive for Business as a data connection.
C. You can examine data by using natural language capabilities.
D. You can add up to six visualizations.
Correct Answer: BC

QUESTION 25
You need to search for a specific knowledge base article by number.
Which two options can you use? Each correct answer presents a complete solution.
A. Service Area
B. Relevance Search
C. Categorized Search
D. Article Template Quick Find
Correct Answer: AC

QUESTION 26
You use the interactive service hub for your daily work. You identify a knowledge base article that can assist with an open case for a customer.
You need to send the article to the customer. What should you do?
A. Create a new email record and set the regarding object to the knowledge base article.
B. Use Microsoft Skype for Business to send a link to the customer.
C. Send a link to the customer by using Email a link.
D. Search the knowledge base from within the case, and use the Link Article and Email Content option.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 27
A user selects a case from a queue and studies the queue item details for the case. MB2-718 dumps Which two data points are displayed? Each correct answer presents a complete solution.
A. the user who owns the case
B. the time spent working on the case
C. the queue the case is related to
D. the user working on the case
Correct Answer: BD

QUESTION 28
Which queue type is created when you add a user to Dynamics 365?
A. System
B. Personal
C. Escalation
D. Shared
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 29
You manage a Microsoft Dynamics 365 deployment You need to enable editable grids for an entity. What should you do?
A. Customize the entity.
B. Use the System Customizer tool.
C. Configure the Microsoft Dynamics CRM for Outlook add-in.
D. Modify the system settings.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 30
The time period for a goal was not set correctly. You need to ensure that a user can correct the goal. What should you do?
A. Change the manager for the goal.
B. Add a new goal metric.
C. Add a child goal with the correct time period that is owned by the user.
D. Add a parent goal with the correct time period that is owned by the user.
Correct Answer: A

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[2018 Newest] Best CompTIA Security+ SY0-401 Dumps Exam Training Resources Free Update Youtube Shared (Q1-Q40)

admin May 11, 2018

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Vendor: CompTIA
Certifications: Security+
Exam Name: CompTIA Security+ Certification
Exam Code: SY0-401
Total Questions: 1776 Q&As

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Best CompTIA Security+ SY0-401 Dumps Exam Questions And Answers (Q1-Q40)

QUESTION 1
Ann is the data owner of financial records for a company. She has requested that she have the ability to assign read and write privileges to her folders. The network administrator is tasked with setting up the initial access control system and handing Ann’s administrative capabilities. Which of the following systems should be deployed?
A. Role-based
B. Mandatory
C. Discretionary
D. Rule-based
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 2
A password history value of three means which of the following?
A. Three different passwords are used before one can be reused.
B. A password cannot be reused once changed for three years.
C. After three hours a password must be re-entered to continue.
D. The server stores passwords in the database for three days.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 3
A security administrator has installed a new KDC for the corporate environment. Which of the following authentication protocols is the security administrator planning to implement across the organization?
A. LDAP
B. RADIUS
C. Kerberos
D. XTACACS
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 4
A system administrator is using a packet sniffer to troubleshoot remote authentication. The administrator detects a device trying to communicate to TCP port 49. Which of the following authentication methods is MOST likely being attempted?
A. RADIUS
B. TACACS+
C. Kerberos
D. LDAP
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 5
Which of the following authentication services requires the use of a ticket-granting ticket (TGT) server in order to complete the authentication process?
A. TACACS+
B. Secure LDAP
C. RADIUS
D. Kerberos
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 6
An organization has introduced token-based authentication to system administrators due to risk of password compromise. The tokens have a set of numbers that automatically change every 30 seconds. Which of the following type of authentication mechanism is this?
A. TOTP
B. Smart card
C. CHAP
D. HOTP
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 7
The security department has implemented a new laptop encryption product in the environment. The product requires one user name and password at the time of boot up and also another password after the operating system has finished loading. This setup is using which of the following authentication types?
A. Two-factor authentication
B. Single sign-on
C. Multifactor authentication
D. Single factor authentication
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 8
A company hired Joe, an accountant. The IT administrator will need to create a new account for Joe. The company uses groups for ease of management and administration of user accounts. SY0-401 dumps
Joe will need network access to all directories, folders and files within the accounting department.
Which of the following configurations will meet the requirements?
A. Create a user account and assign the user account to the accounting group.
B. Create an account with role-based access control for accounting.
C. Create a user account with password reset and notify Joe of the account creation.
D. Create two accounts: a user account and an account with full network administration rights.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 9
Which of the following access controls enforces permissions based on data labeling at specific levels?
A. Mandatory access control
B. Separation of duties access control
C. Discretionary access control
D. Role based access control
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 10
A system administrator needs to ensure that certain departments have more restrictive controls to their shared folders than other departments. Which of the following security controls would be implemented to restrict those departments?
A. User assigned privileges
B. Password disablement
C. Multiple account creation
D. Group based privileges
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 11
Ann was reviewing her company’s event logs and observed several instances of GUEST accessing the company print server, file server, and archive database. As she continued to investigate, Ann noticed that it seemed to happen at random intervals throughout the day, but mostly after the weekly automated patching and often logging in at the same time. Which of the following would BEST mitigate this issue?
A. Enabling time of day restrictions
B. Disabling unnecessary services
C. Disabling unnecessary accounts
D. Rogue machine detection
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 12
An administrator implements SELinux on a production web server. After implementing this, the web server no longer serves up files from users’ home directories. To rectify this, the administrator creates a new policy as the root user. This is an example of which of the following? (Select TWO).
A. Enforcing SELinux in the OS kernel is role-based access control
B. Enforcing SELinux in the OS kernel is rule-based access control
C. The policy added by the root user is mandatory access control
D. Enforcing SELinux in the OS kernel is mandatory access control
E. The policy added by the root user is role-based access control
F. The policy added by the root user is rule-based access control
Correct Answer: DF

QUESTION 13
Jane, a security administrator, has been tasked with explaining authentication services to the company’s management team. The company runs an active directory infrastructure. Which of the following solutions BEST relates to the host authentication protocol within the company’s environment?
A. Kerberos
B. Least privilege
C. TACACS+
D. LDAP
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 14
Which of the following is an example of multifactor authentication?
A. Credit card and PIN
B. Username and password
C. Password and PIN
D. Fingerprint and retina scan
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 15
Which of the following should be used to authenticate and log connections from wireless users connecting with EAP-TLS?
A. Kerberos
B. LDAP
C. SAML
D. RADIUS
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 16
Which of the following authentication services uses a ticket granting system to provide access?
A. RADIUS
B. LDAP
C. TACACS+
D. Kerberos
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 17
Which of the following was based on a previous X.500 specification and allows either unencrypted authentication or encrypted authentication through the use of TLS?
A. Kerberos
B. TACACS+
C. RADIUS
D. LDAP
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 18
Which of the following types of security services are used to support authentication for remote users and devices?
A. Biometrics
B. HSM
C. RADIUS
D. TACACS
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 19
A hacker has discovered a simple way to disrupt business for the day in a small company which relies on staff working remotely. In a matter of minutes the hacker was able to deny remotely working staff access to company systems with a script. Which of the following security controls is the hacker exploiting?
A. DoS
B. Account lockout
C. Password recovery
D. Password complexity
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 20
A technician is reviewing the logical access control method an organization uses. One of the senior managers requests that the technician prevent staff members from logging on during nonworking days. Which of the following should the technician implement to meet managements request?
A. Enforce Kerberos
B. Deploy smart cards
C. Time of day restrictions
D. Access control lists
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 21
Which of the following is the BEST reason for placing a password lock on a mobile device?
A. Prevents an unauthorized user from accessing owner’s data
B. Enables remote wipe capabilities
C. Stops an unauthorized user from using the device again
D. Prevents an unauthorized user from making phone calls
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 22
Which of the following is mainly used for remote access into the network?
A. XTACACS
B. TACACS+
C. Kerberos
D. RADIUS
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 23
Which of the following protocols uses TCP instead of UDP and is incompatible with all previous versions?
A. TACACS
B. XTACACS
C. RADIUS
D. TACACS+
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 24
The system administrator is tasked with changing the administrator password across all 2000 computers in the organization. SY0-401 dumps Which of the following should the system administrator implement to accomplish this task?
A. A security group
B. A group policy
C. Key escrow
D. Certificate revocation
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 25
The IT department has setup a website with a series of questions to allow end users to reset their own accounts. Which of the following account management practices does this help?
A. Account Disablements
B. Password Expiration
C. Password Complexity
D. Password Recovery
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 26
Use of group accounts should be minimized to ensure which of the following?
A. Password security
B. Regular auditing
C. Baseline management
D. Individual accountability
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 27
One of the most basic ways to protect the confidentiality of data on a laptop in the event the device is physically stolen is to implement which of the following?
A. File level encryption with alphanumeric passwords
B. Biometric authentication and cloud storage
C. Whole disk encryption with two-factor authentication
D. BIOS passwords and two-factor authentication
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 28
A security analyst implemented group-based privileges within the company active directory. Which of the following account management techniques should be undertaken regularly to ensure least privilege principles?
A. Leverage role-based access controls.
B. Perform user group clean-up.
C. Verify smart card access controls.
D. Verify SHA-256 for password hashes.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 29
An internal auditing team would like to strengthen the password policy to support special characters. Which of the following types of password controls would achieve this goal?
A. Add reverse encryption
B. Password complexity
C. Increase password length
D. Allow single sign on
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 30
Which of the following is best practice to put at the end of an ACL?
A. Implicit deny
B. Time of day restrictions
C. Implicit allow
D. SNMP string
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 31
Ann, a security administrator, wishes to replace their RADIUS authentication with a more secure protocol, which can utilize EAP. Which of the following would BEST fit her objective?
A. CHAP
B. SAML
C. Kerberos
D. Diameter
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 32
Jane, a security administrator, needs to implement a secure wireless authentication method that uses a remote RADIUS server for authentication.
Which of the following is an authentication method Jane should use?
A. WPA2-PSK
B. WEP-PSK
C. CCMP
D. LEAP
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 33
A network administrator is configuring access control for the sales department which has high employee turnover. Which of the following is BEST suited when assigning user rights to individuals in the sales department?
A. Time of day restrictions
B. Group based privileges
C. User assigned privileges
D. Domain admin restrictions
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 34
A security technician is working with the network firewall team to implement access controls at the company’s demarc as part of the initiation of configuration management processes. One of the network technicians asks the security technician to explain the access control type found in a firewall. With which of the following should the security technician respond?
A. Rule based access control
B. Role based access control
C. Discretionary access control
D. Mandatory access control
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 35
A security administrator has been tasked to ensure access to all network equipment is controlled by a central server such as TACACS+. This type of implementation supports which of the following risk mitigation strategies?
A. User rights and permissions review
B. Change management
C. Data loss prevention
D. Implement procedures to prevent data theft
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 36
Which of the following is an XML based open standard used in the exchange of authentication and authorization information between different parties?
A. LDAP
B. SAML
C. TACACS+
D. Kerberos
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 37
The security manager wants to unify the storage of credential, phone numbers, office numbers, and address information into one system. Which of the following is a system that will support the requirement on its own?
A. LDAP
B. SAML
C. TACACS
D. RADIUS
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 38
LDAP and Kerberos are commonly used for which of the following?
A. To perform queries on a directory service
B. To store usernames and passwords for Federated Identity
C. To sign SSL wildcard certificates for subdomains
D. To utilize single sign-on capabilities
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 39
A user reports being unable to access a file on a network share. SY0-401 dumps The security administrator determines that the file is marked as confidential and that the user does not have the appropriate access level for that file. Which of the following is being implemented?
A. Mandatory access control
B. Discretionary access control
C. Rule based access control
D. Role based access control
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 40
Users report that they are unable to access network printing services. The security technician checks the router access list and sees that web, email, and secure shell are allowed. Which of the following is blocking network printing?
A. Port security
B. Flood guards
C. Loop protection
D. Implicit deny
Correct Answer: D

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[2018 Newest] New Cisco CCNP Data Center 300-160 Dumps Exam Real Questions And Answers Update Youtube (Q1-Q20)

admin May 2, 2018

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Vendor: Cisco
Certifications: CCNP Data Center
Exam Name: Designing Cisco Data Center Infrastructure
Exam Code: 300-160
Total Questions: 439 Q&As
300-160
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New Cisco CCNP Data Center 300-160 Dumps Exam Real Questions And Answers (Q1-Q20)

QUESTION 1
Which component is required to run FCoE?
A. converged network adapter
B. iSCSI gateway
C. host bus adapter
D. Fibre Channel adapter
Correct Answer: A

Explanation:
Explanation: Computers can connect to FCoE with converged network adapters (CNAs), which contain both Fibre Channel host bus adapter (HBA) and Ethernet Network Interface Card (NIC) functionality on the same adapter card. CNAs have one or more physical Ethernet ports. FCoE encapsulation can be done in software with a conventional Ethernet network interface card, however FCoE CNAs offload (from the CPU) the low level frame processing and SCSI protocol functions traditionally performed by Fibre Channel host bus adapters.

QUESTION 2
You have a Cisco Nexus 5500 Series switch. What is the default load-balancing hash mechanism for traffic on FCoE port channels?
A. the source MAC address
B. the source IP address and the destination IP address
C. the source MAC address and the destination MAC address
D. the source TCP or UDP port and the destination TCP or UDP port
Correct Answer: B

Explanation:
On Nexus 5500 the default load balancing mechanism on the LACP port- channel for FCoE traffic is “source-destination”. In this default state, all the FCoE traffic takes the same link in the portchannel when the Nexus 5500 forwards frames over FCoE VE ports. In order to enable all links to be used in the port-channel for FCoE traffic, enter the port-channel load-balance ethernet source-dest-port command to configure Nexus 5500 “port-channel load balancing” to “source-dest-port”. With this configuration “source- destination-oxid” load balancing is used for FCoE traffic.

QUESTION 3
You must configure resiliency for Fibre Channel uplink ports on Cisco UCS Fabric Interconnects. Which feature should you configure?
A. an appliance port
B. vPC
C. a port channel
D. a unified storage port
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 4
What is the most common design requirement when creating a data center solution?
A. high availability with disaster recovery
B. multicore CPU servers
C. traffic inspection for inbound traffic
D. virtualization of network resources
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 5
Which two actions must be performed when you configure Cisco VN-Link in hardware? (Choose two.)
A. Create a distributed virtual switch in Cisco UCS Manager.
B. Add an ESX host to the distributed virtual switch in Cisco UCS Manager.
C. Create a port profile and profile clients in Cisco UCS Manager.
D. Create a standard switch on an ESXi host and map the network adapters to the switch.
E. Create a distributed virtual switch under the datacenter folder in VMware vCenter.
Correct Answer: AC

QUESTION 6
Which two platforms support the FCoE protocol? (Choose two)
A. Cisco Nexus 2332TQ Series
B. Cisco MDS 9148S Series
C. Cisco Nexus 7010 Series
D. Cisco MDS 9222i Series
E. Cisco Nexus 2248TP Series
Correct Answer: CD

QUESTION 7
Spanning Tree Protocol runs at which functional layer of the data center?
A. core layer
B. access layer
C. application layer
D. network layer
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 8
You deploy new server infrastructure by using a Cisco UCS platform. Winch two design options can you use to increase the redundancy of the new compute solution’ 300-160 dumps (Choose two.)
A. a 10-Gb uplink port
B. a pin vNic in the server profile to a specific Fabric Interconnect node that has failover disabled
C. an uplink port in a port channel configuration
D. static pinning at the server ports
E. more than one server port to connect the Cisco UCS B-Series blade IOM
Correct Answer: BC

QUESTION 9
Which two options are supported on Cisco UCS Fabric Interconnects that use native Fibre Channel connectivity? (Choose two)
A. iSCSI
B. NFS
C. DAS
D. SAN
E. iFCP

QUESTION 10
Which technology provides the ability to use all links in a LAN topology by providing an active-active path to the upstream switch?
A. STP
B. vPC
C. PVST+
D. RSTP
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 11
When you configure FCIP, which two types of acceleration can you enable to maximize WAN link utilization? (Choose two)
A. SCSI write
B. link
C. SCSI tape
D. WAN
E. IP
Correct Answer: AC

QUESTION 12
What are two benefits of a service insertion that is mediated through the Cisco APIC instead of the classical Ethernet model? (Choose two.)
A. provides Layer 5 service insertion capability
B. provides Layer 7 service insertion capability
C. provides policies that can manage the network and service appliances
D. can automate the service insertion
E. provides built-in services, such as Cisco ACE Web Application Firewall and ADC
Correct Answer: BC

QUESTION 13
What are common switching protocols that are used in the data center? (Choose two.)
A. Token Ring
B. FDDI
C. Ethernet
D. MPLS
E. Frame Relay
F. APPN/APPI
Correct Answer: CD

QUESTION 14
You plan to use vPC+ in a FabricPath topology. What are two characteristics of a vPC+ switch ID? (Choose two.)
A. must he set to 255
B. must be set manually
C. can be reused in the FabricPath topology
D. must be the same on each vPC+ peer
E. must be different on each vPC+ peer
Correct Answer: CD

QUESTION 15
Which option can be used to provide a nonproprietary method of load balancing and redundancy between the access and aggregation layers in the data canter?
A. vPC
B. PAgP
C. LACP
D. host vPC
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 16
You must use one logical uplink for Fibre Channel traffic and Ethernet traffic on a Cisco UCS system.
Which type of port should you use to accomplish this task?
A. FCoE storage
B. server
C. FCoE uplink
D. uplink
Correct Answer: C

Explanation:
Server and Uplink Ports on the Fabric Interconnect Each fabric interconnect has a set of ports in a fixed port module that you can configure as either server ports or uplink Ethernet ports. 300-160 dumps These ports are not reserved. They cannot be used by a Cisco UCS instance until you configure them. You can addexpansion modules to increase the number of uplink ports on the fabric interconnect or to add uplink Fibre Channel ports to the fabric interconnect.
You need to create LAN pin groups and SAN pin groups to pin traffic from servers to an uplink port. Each fabric interconnect can include the following types of ports:
Server Ports
Server ports handle data traffic between the fabric interconnect and the adapter cards on the servers. You can only configure server ports on the fixed port module. Expansion modules do not include server ports.
Uplink Ethernet Ports
Uplink Ethernet ports handle Ethernet traffic between the fabric interconnect and the next layer of the network. All network-bound Ethernet traffic is pinned to one of these ports. By default, Ethernet ports are unconfigured. However, you can configure them to function in the following ways:
Server
Uplink
FCoE
Appliance
You can configure uplink Ethernet ports on either the fixed module or an expansion module.
Uplink Fibre Channel Ports
Uplink Fibre Channel ports handle FCoE traffic between the fabric interconnect and the next layer of the network. All network-bound FCoE traffic is pinned to one of these ports. By default, Fibre Channel ports are uplink. However, you can configure them to function as Fibre Channel storage ports. This is useful in cases where a Cisco UCS requires a connection to a Direct-Attached Storage (DAS) device. You can only configure uplink Fibre Channel ports on an expansion module. The fixed module does not include uplink Fibre Channel ports.

QUESTION 17
You use Cisco UCS Central to manage Cisco UCS. Which statement accurately describes how local and global policies are applied?
A. A local policy is applied by using Cisco UCS Central, and a global policy is applied by using Cisco UCS Director.
B. A local policy is applied by using Cisco UCS Manager, and a global policy is applied by using Cisco UCS Central.
C. A local policy is applied by using Cisco UCS Director, and a global policy is applied by using Cisco UCS Central.
D. A local policy is applied by using Cisco UCS Central, and a global policy is applied by using Cisco UCS Manager.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 18
Which technology uses TCP as a block I/O transport?
A. iSCSI
B. NFS v4
C. CIFS
D. FCoE
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 19
Which statement accurately describes VSAN-based QoS when the same flow is present in two class maps that are associated to a policy map?
A. The highest QoS value is used.
B. The lowest QoS value is used.
C. The QoS value ot the class map that is attached first takes effect.
D. The QoS value ot the class map that is attached last takes effect.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 20
A customer is interested in endpoint security at the access layer, which option is Cisco recommended?
A. ACLs
B. DAI
C. TrustSec
D. stateful inspection
E. UDLD
Correct Answer: C

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[2018 Newest] High Quality Cisco CCNA Data Center 200-155 Dumps Exam Practice Materials Update Youtube (Q1-Q30)

admin May 2, 2018

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Vendor: Cisco
Certifications: CCNA Data Center
Exam Name: Introducing Cisco Data Center Technologies
Exam Code: 200-155
Total Questions: 101 Q&As

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New Cisco CCNA Data Center 200-155 Dumps Exam Practice Questions And Answers (Q1-Q30)

QUESTION 1
Which two are benefits of Cisco Unified Fabric? (Choose two )
A. SNMPv3 strong authentication
B. reduced cabling
C. zone port distribution
D. consolidation of LAN and SAN over a common transport
E. native AES-256 encryption of data in flight
Correct Answer: BD

QUESTION 2
200-155 dumps
Refer to the exhibit. A network engineer allocates 12 physical ports to a new VDC. Which command is used to verify VDC port allocation on a Cisco Nexus switch?
A. show vdc port-membership
B. show vdc port-allocation
C. show vdc allocation
D. show vdc membership
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 3
A network design engineer is asked to design a SAN (or a company Which two underlying principles of SAN design should be considered? Choose two.)
A. fault isolation, consolidation while maintaining isolation
B. future growth in LAN infrastructure
C. security management, preferential network security
D. scalability of LAN infrastructure, reduced Ethernet QoS complexity
E. short and long term port density and topology requirements
Correct Answer: AE

QUESTION 4
Which two adapters far Cisco UCS B-Series blade servers and C-Series rack servers allow configuration of virtual interfaces? (Choose two.)
A. M71-KR
B. P71E
C. VIC-1225
D. P81E
E. VIC-1280
Correct Answer: DE

QUESTION 5
Which option describes the STP requirements for Cisco Fabric Path?
A. MST must be configured an every Cisco Fabric Path VLAN.
B. STP is required only to resolve border link failures
C. RPVST must be configured on every Cisco Fabric Path VLAN
D. STP is not required on Cisco Fabric Path interfaces.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 6
Which ports on the Cisco UCS 6120XP Fabric Interconnects can operate at either 1 Gb/s or 10 Gb/s?
A. Ports 1?
B. None
C. Ports 1?
D. Ports 1?
E. Ports 17?0
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 7
A user is trying to create a new VDC in NX-OS in global configurations mode, but receives an error message What issue prevents the user from creating Virtual Device Contexts?
A. VDCs cannot be created in global configuration mode.
B. The user is not a vdc-admin.
C. The user is not a member of the VDC Power Admin group.
D. The user is not a network-admin.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 8
200-155 dumps Which option describes Cisco’s virtual device context feature?
A. logical virtualization of a single physical switch
B. logical witches aggregated into a single physical switch
C. logical switches aggregated into multiple physical switches
D. multiple physical switches partitioned to a single virtual switch
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 9
A Cisco UCS administrator wants only the Cisco UCS chassis with four connections between each IOM and the Fabric Interconnect pair to be recognized. Which policy and corresponding action must be configured?
A. Chassis/FEX Discovery Policy, Action: 4-link
B. Chassis/FEX Discovery Policy, Redundancy Action: N+1
C. Rack Management Connection Policy, Action: 4-link
D. Power Policy, Redundancy Action: Grid
E. Rack Server Discovery Policy, Action: 4-link
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 10
Which three are the names of configuration tabs that appear in the Navigation Pane of the UCS Manager GUI? (Choose three.)
A. VLAN
B. LAN
C. VSAN
D. Policies
E. Equipment
F. Global
G. Admin
Correct Answer: BEG

QUESTION 11
Which two Cisco data center devices can participate in Fabric Path? (Choose two.)
A. Cisco MOS 9500 Series directors
B. Cisco Nexus 7000 Series Switches
C. Cisco Nexus 5500 Series Switches
D. Cisco Nexus 1000V
E. Cisco Nexus 4900 Series Switches
Correct Answer: BC

QUESTION 12
The marketing, research, and business departments of a company each have servers and storage in the SAN fabric connected to a Cisco MDS switch. The storage engineer is asked to ensure that each department’s servers and storage are isolated from the other departments. Which two steps can the engineer take to accomplish this task? (Choose two.)
A. Create VSAN 10, 11, and 12 on the MDS switch.
B. Add marketing devices to VSAN 10, research to VSAN 11, and business to VSAN 12.
C. Create VSAN 10 on the MDS switch.
D. Add marketing, research, and business devices to VSAN 10.
E. Create VSAN 10 and VSAN 11.
F. Add all storage devices to VSAN 10. Add all server devices to VSAN 11.
Correct Answer: AB

QUESTION 13
Which two modes of setup are offered on the initial setup script on a Cisco UCS Fabric Interconnect? (Choose two.)
A. Restore
B. Setup
C. Console
D. Serial
E. Management 0
Correct Answer: AB

QUESTION 14
Which two Cisco Nexus 1000V Series Switch features exceed the functionality of the VWware vNetwork Distributed Switch? (Choose two )
A. access control lists
B. QoS marking
C. Network vMotion
D. port state migration
E. DV Port Groups
Correct Answer: AB

QUESTION 15
Which of the following is a virtual technology that helps create multiple route tables that function on the same physical router?
A. VSS
B. vPC
C. VRF
D. VSAN
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 16
Layer 3 networks can be logically separated by which technology?
A. bridge domain
B. VRF
C. VLAN
D. tenant
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 17
What are two advantages to running Fabric Path in the data center over using Spanning Tree? (Choose two.)
A. provides multi chassis Ether Channel capabilities
B. allows every switch to send BPDUs to each other to ensure the L2 topology is synchronized
C. has L2 multipath forwarding capacities
D. uses B02 1 q trunks to ensure VLANs are propagated through the topology
E. uses TTL field to provide loop mitigation
Correct Answer: CE

QUESTION 18
A network engineer wants to configure switch ports on Cisco Nexus 2000 and 2200 Fabric Extender switches that are connected to a Cisco Nexus 5500 Series Switch. Which two options allow this configuration? 200-155 dumps (Choose two)
A. Connect to each of the Cisco Nexus 2200/2000 switches using Telnet, then configure the FEX switch ports.
B. Connect to a Cisco Nexus 5600 using Telnet, then configure the FEX switch ports.
C. Connect to each of the Cisco Nexus 2200/2000 switches using SSH, then configure the FEX switch ports.
D. Connect to each at the Cisco Nexus 2200/2000 switches using a console cable then configure the FEX switch ports.
E. Connect to a Cisco Nexus 5500 switch using SSH, then configure the FEX switch ports.
Correct Answer: BE

QUESTION 19
What are two main benefits of standardized open API’s in a multi-vendor environment? (Choose two)
A. automation
B. clustering
C. interoperability
D. centralized management
E. configuration management
Correct Answer: AD

QUESTION 20
Which two options are advantages of a spine and leaf architecture? (Choose two )
A. robust multipathing
B. traffic that is optimized for east-west communication
C. star topology
D. traffic that is optimized for north-south communication
E. exponential scalability
Correct Answer: AE

QUESTION 21
What is the primary benefit of Cisco Global Load Balancing Solution?
A. implements business continuity and disaster recovery by optimizing the DNS infrastructure
B. encrypts data communication
C. accelerates content delivery through a designated content cache engine
D. adds resiliency to the core layer of a data center
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 22
Which Cisco Nexus 1000V component is the equivalent of a line card on a standard Cisco Nexus switch?
A. Virtual Ethernet Module
B. Virtual Supervisor Module
C. Virtual Service Blade
D. Virtual Security Gateway
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 23
Which tool organizes workflows to automate simple and complex actions on infrastructure?
A. Cisco UCS Manager
B. Cisco UCS Director
C. Cisco DCNM
D. Cisco UCS server
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 24
Which three are the three primary methods to configure Cisco UCS B-Series systems? (Choose three.)
A. SNMP
B. XML API
C. UCS Manager GUI
D. IPMI
E. UCS Manager CLI
F. CIM-XML
Correct Answer: BCE

QUESTION 25
Which management platform reduces server provisioning tome by automatically performing an inventory and deep discovery when new devices are attached?
A. UCS Manager
B. UCS Server
C. CDP Manager
D. Enterprise Manager
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 26
A customer deployed Cisco B200 blades with service profiles. The customer experiences an outage on one of the Cisco B200 blades that will be replaced with a spare blade already in inventory. Which two steps should the customer take to replace the failed blade? (Choose two.)
A. Disassociate the service profile from the failed blade.
B. Associate the service profile to the spare blade.
C. Create a new service profile for the spare blade.
D. Delete the service profile from the spare blade.
E. Create a new service profile template for the failed blade.
Correct Answer: AB

QUESTION 27
Which feature monitors state transitions of components and processes in Cisco Unified Computing System?
A. finite state machine
B. state monitor
C. state manager
D. discovery
E. logical state arbiter
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 28
A network engineer is migrating the server farm from 1 Gb/s Ethernet connectivity la 10 Gb/s Ethernet connectivity What two Cisco Nexus Fabric Extenders support 10 Gb/s server connectivity? 200-155 dumps (Choose two.)
A. Nexus 2148T
B. Nexus 2232PP
C. Nexus 2248TP
D. Nexus 2248PQ
E. Nexus 2224TP
Correct Answer: BD

QUESTION 29
Which statements are valid for a local SPAN configuration’? (Choose two.)
A. Source and destination interface must be on the same host
B. Source and destination interfaces can be on different hosts
C. Destination vEthernet interface can be on a different VLAN than the source
D. Destination interface can be a physical port
E. Destination interface cannot be a physical port
Correct Answer: AD

QUESTION 30
When using a Cisco UCS Director, a typical workflow consists of which two terms? (Choose Two )
A. Resource Manager
B. Workflow Designer
C. Scheduler
D. Activity Planner
E. Predefined Tasks
Correct Answer: BE

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[2018 Newest] Helpful Latest Citrix CCA 1Y0-A26 Dumps Exam Practice Update Youtube Demo Free Shared (Q1-Q35)

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Vendor: Citrix
Certifications: CCA
Exam Name: Citrix XenServer 6.0 Administration
Exam Code: 1Y0-A26
Total Questions: 125 Q&As

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Helpful Latest Citrix CCA 1Y0-A26 Dumps Exam Practice Questions And Answers (Q1-Q35)

QUESTION 1
Scenario: An administrator is unable to connect to a resource pool in a XenServer environment in which high availability is enabled. The administrator discovers that the host is unreachable.
What does the administrator need to do to recover the host?
A. Run the pool-disable command, then the host-shutdown command and then restart the host.
B. Run the pool-disable command, then run the pool-emergency-reset-master command and restart the host.
C. Run the emergency-ha-disable command, then once the host is restarted, run the pool-ha- enable command.
D. Run the host-evacuate command, then restart the host and run the pool-emergency- transition- to-master command.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 2
Scenario: In an environment with high availability enabled, an administrator discovered that a host is unreachable in a XenServer pool. The administrator disabled high availability in order to make the host reachable.
Which xe CLI command can the administrator run to make the host reachable again?
A. host-disable
B. host-evacuate
C. pool-designate-new-master
D. pool-emergency-reset-master
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 3
An administrator needs to run commands to specify to configure email alerts at the host level. (Choose the correct option to complete the sentence.)
A. alarm_priority on the host
B. alarm_priority on the virtual machine
C. the sender email address and SMTP server
D. the recipient email address and SMTP server
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 4
An administrator needs to authenticate all users when they log into the XenServer pool using their Windows credentials.
What is the first step the administrator must take to achieve this?
A. Join the XenServer pool to the domain.
B. Add each user to the Users tab in XenCenter.
C. Create a XenServer user group within Active Directory.
D. Create Active Directory accounts for the XenServer users.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 5
What must be true in order to integrate Active Directory authentication with a XenServer host?
A. LDAP port 389 is open for inbound traffic to the XenServer host.
B. The Active Directory administrator account is created locally on the XenServer host.
C. The same DNS server is used for both the Active Directory server and the XenServer host.
D. RAS authentication is used for communication between the Active Directory server and the XenServer host.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 6
Scenario: An administrator configured XenServer Role Based Access Control (RBAC) to authenticate using Active Directory.
Using RBAC, the administrator must grant Level 2 Support users with permission to start and stop virtual machines.
Which two steps must the administrator take to grant Level 2 Support users virtual machine permissions? (Choose two.)
A. Assign a role to the subject.
B. Add an Active Directory group to the pool.
C. Assign XenServer permissions to a group.
D. Add users and their roles to the authorized list of users.
Correct Answer: AB

QUESTION 7
An administrator was given new security rules and now needs to remove specific permissions from the users in the VM Admin Role Based Access Control group.
How can the administrator remove the specific permissions from the VM Admin user group?
A. Reset the VM Admin user group back to the default permissions.
B. Delete the registry key that applies to the specific permissions that need to be removed.
C. Run the xe subject-role-remove uuid= role-name=vm.pool_migrate XenServer command.
D. Remove the specific permissions from the Active Directory user group associated with the VM Admin user group.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 8
Scenario: An administrator is planning to introduce 100 new virtual machines into the environment. The administrator plans to use XenServer templates andduplication mechanisms. 1Y0-A26 dumps
What must the administrator consider when deciding between the full copy and fast clone duplication mechanisms?
A. A template needs to be copied before it can be fast cloned.
B. A virtual machine that is duplicated using the full copy method may impact disk performance.
C. A virtual machine that is duplicated using the fast cloned method may impact disk performance.
D. A template created on local storage can be duplicated by using the full copy method by any host in the pool.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 9
An administrator cloned a template into a virtual machine and then converted it back into a template.
Which action must be performed on the disks to restore expected levels of disk performance?
A. Run SysPrep
B. Complete a full copy
C. Execute a fast clone
D. Suspend before cloning
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 10
Which item in the Provisioning Services Console will the administrator need to configure to delete a machine account from the Active Directory domain?
A. Farm
B. vDisk
C. Server
D. Target Device
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 11
An administrator notices that the target device is NOT starting from a newly created vDisk, but other target devices using different vDisks are working.
Which action can the administrator take to correct this issue?
A. Restart the Stream Service.
B. Enable streaming on the vDisk.
C. Reset the Active Directory machine account password.
D. Change the vDisk access mode to Private Image mode.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 12
An administrator needs to configure a Provisioning services environment for Microsoft volume license management.
Which properties could the administrator configure to accomplish this task?
A. Farm
B. vDisk
C. Server
D. Target device
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 13
Scenario: An administrator is delivering Windows virtual machines using Provisioning services. The administrator needs to reduce the impact on Provisioning services disk consumption as well as maintain user operating system modifications.
Which cache mode must be used in this scenario?
A. Cache on Server
B. Cache in Device RAM
C. Cache on Server Persisted
D. Cache on Device Hard Drive Persisted
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 14
Scenario: An administrator is in charge of distributing streamed Windows desktops to users using Provisioning services. Users have reported that they CANNOT access any printers while using the streamed desktops. The administrator has confirmed local printers are installed in the base image.
What could be causing this issue?
A. Printer drivers are NOT configured.
B. Network printers are NOT assigned to the users.
C. Active Directory printers are assigned to the users.
D. Printer Management is enabled in the vDisk properties.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 15
A XenServer administrator is updating a shared disk image used by multiple virtual machines.
What must the administrator do before updating the shared disk image?
A. Copy CIM.EXE to the vDisk.
B. Modify the vDisk cache type.
C. Disable streaming of the vDisk.
D. Change the vDisk access mode.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 16
Scenario: An administrator manages an environment with 200 private virtual machine images that need to be updated. Snapshots are NOT being used and the virtual machines have been customized by the users.
Which step must the administrator take to update these images?
A. Enable automatic updates.
B. Merge differencing disk files.
C. Change the vDisk access mode.
D. Update each of the vDisks individually.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 17
Scenario: An administrator created a single vDisk in the Provisioning Services Console that will be delivered to multiple target devices. The operating system must save user changes to applications.
Which two options did the administrator select while preparing the vDisk? (Choose two.)
A. Private Image mode
B. Cache in Device RAM
C. Standard Image mode
D. Cache on Hard Drive Persistent
Correct Answer: CD

QUESTION 18
An administrator needs to modify an application contained within a vDisk that is currently being used by multiple target devices.
Which option must the administrator select on the vDisk in order to modify the application? 1Y0-A26 dumps
A. Cache on Server
B. Private Image mode
C. Standard Image mode
D. Cache on Device Hard Disk
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 19
An administrator needs to add a new group of similar computers to an existing Provisioning services farm.
Which type of resource could the administrator create in Provisioning services?
A. Farm
B. Store
C. Target Device
D. Device Collection
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 20
An administrator has two datacenters, each of which has its own storage that can only be accessed by hosts that are in the same datacenter.
What could the administrator create to ensure that each host can only access its assigned storage?
A. Site
B. Store
C. Target device
D. Device collection
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 21
Scenario: An administrator CANNOT use XenCenter to manage an existing XenServer host in a resource pool. The administrator found that the XenServer host CANNOT communicate properly with XAPI.
What could be causing the communication issue on the failed host?
A. Dom0 is out of space.
B. NTP is NOT configured.
C. The root password is unknown.
D. The host CANNOT connect to Active Directory.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 22
Scenario: An administrator manages six XenServer hosts in a resource pool in which high availability is enabled. The administrator is notified that host fencing occurred.
Which two reasons could be causing the issue? (Choose two.)
A. CPU utilization reached 90%.
B. The resource pool is overcommitted.
C. The shared storage repository was disconnected.
D. There was a XenServer management network outage.
Correct Answer: CD

QUESTION 23
An administrator CANNOT use XenCenter to connect to an existing standalone XenServer host that has six virtual machines running.
What could be causing this issue?
A. NTP is NOT configured.
B. The XAPI Service stopped.
C. The XenServer DNS configuration is incorrect.
D. Communication with Active Directory has been lost.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 24
Scenario: An administrator tries to start a virtual machine on a host that has an NFS storage repository. The virtual machine gives the error “This virtual machine needs storage that cannot be seen from the server.”
Which action, within XenCenter, can the administrator take on the NFS storage repository to correct this issue?
A. Repair
B. Forget
C. Detach
D. Set as default
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 25
Scenario: An administrator manages a XenServer resource pool consisting of six XenServer hosts. A Windows XP virtual machine runs on a shared NFS storage repository. The administrator needs to migrate the Windows XP virtual machine to another host but CANNOT.
What must the administrator do to migrate the Windows XP virtual machine?
A. Install XenServer Tools on the virtual machine.
B. Suspend and then migrate the virtual machine.
C. Enable multipathing on the virtual machine hard drive.
D. Place the virtual machine on shared Fibre Channel or iSCSI storage repository.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 26
An administrator of a Provisioning services environment notices that several of the target devices that are configured to use a vDisk on the provisioning server are randomly failing to start and shut down.
What should the administrator check to prevent this issue from occurring?
A. The SOAP Service is running.
B. High availability is enabled on the vDisks.
C. The target devices are configured to start up from hard disk.
D. All network switch ports have spanning tree protocol disabled.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 27
Scenario: An administrator is troubleshooting a Provisioning services environment. After the administrator configured a new version of the vDisk for 10 identical target devices all running on the same XenServer host, the administrator discovers that only the first target device started with the new vDisk configured. The other nine target devices failed to startup.
What is one of the steps the administrator should take to resolve this issue?
A. Configure the PXE Service.
B. Configure the bootstrap file.
C. Restart the Stream Service.
D. Change the vDisk access mode.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 28
Scenario: An administrator is troubleshooting a Provisioning services farm that consists of two identical servers and 100 identical target devices. 1Y0-A26 dumps From the Provisioning Services Console the administrator notices that one of the provisioning servers has twice the amount of target devices connected compared with the other provisioning server. The vDisk used and the provisioning servers are configured to use high availability and load balancing.
What should the administrator check to correct load balancing?
A. Power Rating
B. Bootstrap options
C. vDisk access mode
D. Offline database support
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 29
An administrator needs to configure dynamic memory control (DMC) for Microsoft Windows XP SP2 virtual machines in the XenServer pool.
What must the administrator do before DMC can be configured on the virtual machines?
A. Update the static memory range.
B. Upgrade to a XenServer Platinum license.
C. Upgrade the virtual machines to Microsoft Windows XP SP3.
D. Run the param-name=memory-static – {min, max} command.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 30
Scenario: An administrator is trying to start two new virtual machines in a XenServer resource pool in which several virtual machines are already running.
However, the virtual machines will NOT start.
What should the administrator do to get the two new virtual machines to start?
A. Disable XenServer Tools.
B. Configure workload balancing.
C. Enable dynamic memory control.
D. Assign virtual machines to a vApp.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 31
Scenario: An administrator needs to increase the maximum memory range from 1 GB to 2 GB on a virtual machine configured with dynamic memory control. The virtual machine runs Windows Server 2008, has XenServer tools installed, and it is currently in a running state.
What should the administrator consider prior to adjusting the memory configuration of the virtual machine?
A. The XenServer host needs to have enough available memory.
B. XenServer workload balancing needs to be enabled on the host.
C. The virtual machine needs to be moved to another resource pool.
D. The virtual machine needs to be restarted in order for the changes to take effect.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 32
Which two policy modes must the administrator apply to implement a XenServer workload balancing policy to reduce power consumption and energy costs during off peak hours? (Choose two.)
A. Maximize Density
B. Fixed Optimization
C. Maximize Performance
D. Scheduled Optimization
Correct Answer: AD

QUESTION 33
Which two policy modes must the administrator apply to implement a XenServer workload balancing policy to help reduce power consumption and energy costs during all hours? (Choose two.)
A. Maximize Density
B. Fixed Optimization
C. Maximize Performance
D. Scheduled Optimization
Correct Answer: AB

QUESTION 34
Which two steps should an administrator take to back up the configuration of a virtual machine in XenServer on a regular basis? (Choose two.)
A. Schedule virtual machine metadata.
B. Access the resource pool configuration.
C. Access the backup, restore and update option.
D. Configure a scheduled snapshot of the virtual machine.
Correct Answer: AC

QUESTION 35
Which action must an administrator take to configure unattended backups of virtual machine configurations?
A. Schedule virtual machine metadata.
B. Schedule a virtual machine snapshot.
C. Configure virtual machine protection policies.
D. Configure a script for exporting virtual machines.
Correct Answer: A

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[2018 Newest] Useful Cisco CCNP Data Center 300-180 Dumps Exam Files Update Youtube Free Shared

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Vendor: Cisco
Certifications: CCNP Data Center
Exam Name: Troubleshooting Cisco Data Center Infrastructure
Exam Code: 300-180
Total Questions: 367 Q&As

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300-180 dumps

Cisco CCNP Data Center 300-180 Dumps Exam Questions And Answers (1-20)

QUESTION 1
After a Cisco UCS Manager upgrade, you discover issues relating to the IQN of several service profiles. Which two options are possible causes of the problem? (Choose two.)
A. duplicate service profiles
B. a duplicate IQN within a service profile
C. a duplicate IQN across multiple service profiles
D. an unsuccessful upgrade
E. incorrect VSAN settings
Correct Answer: BC

QUESTION 2
Which option describes why the service profiles do not inherit changes from the template?
A. The service profile is not compatible with the changes.
B. The changes to the template have not been committed.
C. It is an initial template.
D. The service profile has disabled inheritance.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 3
300-180 dumps

A. The WWPN should always begin with 50 in the first byte to signify it is an FCoE initiator.
B. According to T11 standard FC-BB-5, the first 4 bytes of an FCoE WWNN and WWPN must be unique from each other.
C. The FC SAN Boot checkbox must be selected
D. Beginning with VMware ESXi 5.0, the Enable Persistent LUN Binding option must be checked.
E. The default VLAN should be set as the FCoE VLAN.
F. FCoE boot interfaces must be set to PCIe Device Order 0.
Correct Answer: CE

QUESTION 4
300-180 dumps

Why is Virtual Fibre Channel interface 19 in err-disable state?
A. Missing transceiver
B. Virtual interface is not bound to a physical interface
C. The associated physical interface is down
D. VSAN to VLAN binding mis-configured
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 5
A customer calls in a trouble ticket complaining of unacceptable read I/O latency on a Cisco UCS C210 M2 server with an LSI MegaRAID 9260-8i with an 8-disk RAID-10 virtual disk. As you validate the RAID controller configuration, which of these configured items impacts read performance at the controller level?
A. all disks are 146GB 6 Gb SAS 15K RPM SFF
B. read ahead cache is enabled
C. BGI rate = 0
D. strip size = 256k
E. no hot spare
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 6
A customer is troubleshooting QoS in a Cisco UCS domain due to high packet drops in the network. The customer has configured the vNIC and associated QoS policy, and changed the MTU from 1000 to 1200. 300-180 dumps Packet drops still exist. What is the cause of this issue?
A. The MTU specified here must be greater than the MTU specified in the associated QoS system class. If this MTU value is less than the MTU value in the QoS system class, packets may be dropped during data transmission.
B. The MTU specified here must be equal to or less than the MTU specified in the associated QoS system class. If this MTU value exceeds the MTU value in the QoS system class, packets may be dropped during data transmission.
C. The MTU specified here must be less than the MTU specified in the associated QoS system policy. If this MTU value exceeds the MTU value in the QoS system policy, packets may be not be dropped during data transmission.
D. The MTU must be optimized and should be changed to fc with the CLI command set mtu fc.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 7
You attempt to perform an ESXi update on a Cisco UCS C250 server, but the update does not recognize the NICs. You must perform the update as quickly as possible. Which step must you do first?
A. Check the UCS compatibility matrix and replace the NIC with a supported one.
B. Reconfigure the NIC ID on the LOM.
C. Update the LOM firmware by using the Cisco Host Update Utility.
D. Update the NIC firmware by using the Cisco Host Update Utility.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 8
RBAC is a method of restricting access for a particular user on which two of these? (Choose two.)
A. roles
B. realm
C. locales
D. RADIUS
E. LDAP
Correct Answer: AC

QUESTION 9
You are attempting to install Microsoft Server 2008 R2 on a Fibre Channel LUN, but the installer does not see the LUN. You have used F6 to load the appropriate SCSI driver.
What should your first troubleshooting step be?
A. Email the SAN administrator to validate that your LUN is defined.
B. Check the configuration of the vHBA in the service profile.
C. Validate that the boot order is correct.
D. Validate zoning on the Fibre Channel switch.
E. Validate that the Fibre Channel uplink from the fabric interconnect is up.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 10
Which two commands check for DIMM errors in a Cisco UCS environment? (Choose two.)
A. UCS-TEST/chassis#show error-recovery
B. UCS-TEST/chassis/server/memory-array#show stats
C. UCS-TEST/chassis/server#show execute-disable
D. UCS-TEST/chassis/server/memory-array #show block
E. UCS-TEST/chassis/server#show memory-array detail
F. UCS-TEST/chassis/server#show error-recovery
Correct Answer: BE

QUESTION 11
A customer has Server1 working properly, configured to boot over SAN and with service profile SP1 assigned. This service profile is cloned to service profile SP2 and assigned to Server2. Before Server2 boots, which three actions needs to be performed? (Choose three.)
A. Check the WWPN that is assigned to the vHBAs on SP2.
B. Check the MAC address that is assigned to the vNICs on SP2.
C. Add two vHBAs and assign them to the proper VSAN.
D. Add the pWWN of SP2 to the zoning on the SAN switch.
E. Change the boot target on SP2.
F. Change the IP address of the vNICs.
Correct Answer: ADE

QUESTION 12
You use external storage to SAN boot Cisco UCS B-Series Blade Servers. The servers also have internal disks. You discover that one of the servers fails to boot from the SAN.
Which two options do you verify? (Choose two.)
A. the cabling
B. the zoning
C. the LUN masking on the storage array
D. the boot order of the blade servers
E. the blade power consumption
Correct Answer: BC

QUESTION 13
Which three statements explain why a Cisco UCS server cannot boot via SAN? (Choose three.)
A. The correct VLAN must be configured.
B. The correct WWPN must be specified in the service profile.
C. The server must be able to ping the target.
D. The correct boot order must be specified in the service profile.
E. The boot LUN number must specify the appropriate operating system.
Correct Answer: BDE

QUESTION 14
300-180 dumps

A. The LSI 9260-4i driver needs to be slip-streamed into the installer ISO.
B. The LSI 9260-4i is not on the VMware Hardware Compatibility Guide
C. The LSI 9260-4i is defective.
D. The LSI 9260-4i is misconfigured.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 15
Which of these is a supported Cisco C-Series integration topology?
A. 300-180 dumps
B.
C.
D.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 16
Which option causes an operating system on a UCS device to consistently crash several minutes after booting?
A. faulty power supply
B. out-of-date network adapter firmware
C. incompatible operating system driver
D. incorrect boot order
E. disabled trusted platform module
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 17
What is the correct procedure to change Ethernet switching modes?
A. Navigate to the subordinate Fabric Interconnect in the GUI, choose “Set Ethernet Switching mode”, wait for it to come back up, and repeat on the primary FI.
B. Navigate to either Fabric Interconnect in the GUI, choose “Set Ethernet Switching mode”, and wait while both FIs reboot simultaneously.
C. Navigate to either Fabric Interconnect in the GUI and transparently update the mode to switching. Repeat on the other Fabric Interconnect.
D. Simply start using the switching features. The Fabric Interconnect automatically reconfigures to use Ethernet Switching Mode.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 18
A local storage installation of ESX on a Cisco UCS C-Series server has failed due to local storage issues. 300-180 dumps What is the cause of the problem?
A. LSI drivers are not bundled with ESX.
B. The hard drive has a 1-TB partition size.
C. The server only has an onboard controller, while ESX requires an LSI RAID controller card.
D. ESX is not supported on Cisco UCS C-series servers.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 19
You are installing Microsoft Windows Server 2008 R2 on a Cisco UCS C210 M2 server, and the installer does not see local storage on the LSI MegaRAID SAS 9260-4i controller that is installed. Which statement explains the issue?
A. The driver is not included in the installer DVD. Press F6 to load the LSI RAID driver from CD or virtual media.
B. The virtual disk is not created and online.
C. The LSI 9260-4i is only supported by Red Hat Enterprise Linux and VMware vSphere 4.0 and later.
D. The installer DVD for Microsoft Windows Server 2008 R2 did not include the LSI driver until SP2.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 20
Refer to the exhibit. When this configuration is entered on a fabric interconnect, which traffic is added as a source for a monitoring session?
300-180 dumps
A. the ingress traffic on uplink port 1 on slot 3
B. the ingress traffic on uplink port 3 on slot 1
C. the egress traffic on uplink port 1 on slot 3
D. the egress traffic on uplink port 3 on slot 1
Correct Answer: D

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New IBM certifications I 000-743 Dumps Exam Real Questions And Answers (1-20)

Question 1
A remote backup and recovery site within 50 miles of headquarters requires 7 x 24 x 365 data availability in a heterogeneous UNIX environment. Which of the following IBM storage functions best meets the customer’s business continuance requirements?
A.Global Mirror
B.Metro Mirror
C.FlashCopy
D.High Availability Cluster Multiprocessing
Correct Answers: B

Question 2
A rapidly growing distributor is concerned with the possibility of a natural disaster occurring in the area. They currently have two IBM UNIX servers, both being backed up nightly to an IBM TotalStorage 3584 Tape Library. Tapes are taken offsite nightly. In order to help the customer achieve the next level of disaster recovery protection, which of the following is the most cost-effective recommendation?
A.Add additional LTO drives to their library and make two copies of their data nightly.
B.Move the IBM TotalStorage 3584 Tape Library to a remote location and perform backups nightly.
C.Install the IBM System Storage 7710 at their site and make multiple copies of their data that can be restored quickly.
D.Duplicate their existing environment (servers and library) at a remote location.
Correct Answers: B

Question 3
An IBM storage specialist is talking to a client regarding their current tape library and backup strategy. Which of the following would be most appropriate to identify the customer’s business challenges?
A.What tape technology is currently being used?
B.How many tape drives are in the library?
C.What software is being used for backup?
D.Has there been any recent loss of data?
Correct Answers: D

Question 4
In a recent customer meeting, the data center director described ever increasing application storage requirements. Furthermore, the director wants to consolidate storage from multiple, heterogeneous storage arrays onto a single, high performance, highly scalable storage server.
This migration and consolidation needs to be performed quickly and with minimum application downtime. Which IBM product should the sales specialist discuss with the customer?
A.SAN Volume Controller
B.Tivoli Storage Manager
C.SAN File System
D.Enterprise Remote Copy Management Facility
Correct Answers: A

Question 5
A customer has a combination of Microsoft Windows file servers with direct attached storage and IBM pSeries database servers attached to a FAStT 200 SAN device that is reaching capacity.
The customer needs to migrate to a more scalable storage server. Which of the following would be most appropriate to ask in the initial conversation?
A.How much space is available in the current storage systems?
B.What is the version and release level of the database?
C.Will all servers be SAN attached?
D.What is the projected growth rate of data?
Correct Answers: D

Question 6
A customer wants highest availability, serviceability, and performance for open systems and z/OS workload. 000-743 dumps Which of the following solutions would best meet the customer’s needs?
A.IBM TotalStorage DS4800 Storage Server with the IBM TotalStorage SAN Volume Controller
B.IBM TotalStorage DS6800 Storage Server and IBM TotalStorage SAN Volume Controller
C.IBM TotalStorage DS8300 with TotalStorage Productivity Center (TPC)
D.IBM TotalStorage Data Retention 550 and Tivoli Storage Resource Manager
Correct Answers: C

Question 7
A customer is concerned about the high cost of implementing SAN attached storage for their Microsoft Windows application and database servers. They do need to consolidate storage and share data, while utilizing existing network infrastructure. Which IBM TotalStorage product line should be proposed?
A.N Series for CIFS and iSCSI support
B.Multiprotocol Router Model A16 for FCIP support
C.DS300 Storage Server for iSCSI support
D.DS8300 Storage Server for partitioning support
Correct Answers: A

Question 8
Information Technology management for a company is struggling to manage multiple file systems in their current IBM System Storage SAN environment. They would like to manage Microsoft Windows, Linux and UNIX file systems from a single management console. Which product should be discussed with this client?
A.Network File System (NFS)
B.IBM SAN File System (SFS)
C.IBM San Volume Controller (SVC)
D.IBM Tivoli Storage Manager (TSM)
Correct Answers: B

Question 9
A customer has a requirement to add twelve additional servers (dual attached) to their existing two Brocade 16 port SAN Switches that have no more ports available. Which of the following should be recommended to accommodate the current capacity requirement, allow for future growth, and provide 2 GB support?
A.One IBM TotalStorage SAN16B-R
B.One IBM TotalStorage SAN16B-2
C.One IBM TotalStorage SAN Director Model M14
D.One Cisco Storage Director MDS 9506
Correct Answers: C

Question 10
A customer has a requirement to replace an aging EMC storage system for SAP in a UNIX environment. The customer has a limited budget and wants the best performance for the price.
Which of the following options would be the most appropriate solution?
A.IBM TotalStorage DS4100
B.IBM TotalStorage DS4800
C.IBM TotalStorage DS6800
D.IBM Enterprise Storage Server
Correct Answers: B

Question 11
A customer has 12 Microsoft Windows 2003 servers that need a total of 2 TB of CIFS file space.
Point-in-Time copy capabilities are required to reduce their backup windows. Which additional software would need to be ordered for an N3700 NAS Filer to meet this capability?
A.FlexVol
B.SnapCopy
C.SnapLock
D.SnapRestore
Correct Answers: D

Question 12
A customer has a heterogeneous environment. They want the ability to scale their storage infrastructure to meet rapidly changing business conditions. Which of the following would be most appropriate to discuss with the customer?
A.Business Continuity
B.On Demand Environment
C.Information Lifecycle Management
D.Tiered Storage Hierarchy
Correct Answers: B

Question 13
Which of the following is the best example of Information Lifecycle Management?
A.Creating TSM copy storage pools for exporting of off-site tape volumes
B.Running Global Mirror for remote replication of Oracle Database
C.Migrating infrequently accessed test data from fibre channel disk to SATA disk
D.Migrating data from LTO-1 to LTO-3 tape technology to increase library capacity
Correct Answers: C

Question 14
A long time IBM customer owns both IBM servers and storage. The IBM storage specialist has been asked to present an update on the IBM storage portfolio. 000-743 dumps Which of the following questions from the customer would most likely indicate a competitive storage presence?
A.What is the total internal bandwidth of the IBM TotalStorage DS8100?
B.What is the raw disk capacity of the IBM TotalStorage DS4800?
C.What are the support options available on the IBM TotalStorage DS6800?
D.How can the IBM SAN Volume Controller work in our environment?
Correct Answers: A

Question 15
When describing the features and functions of the DS8000 to the Information Technology director and staff members, a question is raised regarding how I/O performance can be increased (I/O queuing time decreased), while increasing the addressable storage space on their z/OS system. The sales representative needs to schedule another meeting and bring the appropriate specialist to address these concerns. In which subject areas does this specialist need to be proficient?
A.FlashCopy, Global Mirror, and 3390 Mod 3 volumes
B.PAVs, Workload Manager, and 3390 Mod 27 volumes
C.Metro Mirror, Arrays Across Loops, and FICON Express
D.Remote Mirror for z/OS, cache size, and custom volumes
Correct Answers: B

Question 16
The Information Technology director at a prospect is interested in purchasing the IBM TotalStorage N3700, and has asked the IBM storage specialist to help present the solution to the vice president of finance. Which of the following should the IBM storage specialist include in theproposal?
A.A priced configuration showing the list price of the solution.
B.How CIFS and NFS support is included in the base price.
C.How this product lowers Total Cost of Ownership and improves Return On Investment.
D.How the N3700 combines iSCSI, NAS and FiberChannel into a single storage solution.
Correct Answers: C

Question 17
A customer is following a storage consolidation strategy and wants to share a tape library among Microsoft Windows NT, AIX, Sun and mainframe systems. Which of the following directly attached IBM products can satisfy this requirement?
A.IBM TotalStorage Ultrium Tape Library (3582)
B.IBM TotalStorage Ultrium Scalable Tape Library (3583)
C.IBM TotalStorage Ultrascalable Tape Library (3584)
D.IBM TotalStorage Data Retention 550 with 3592 WORM Tape
Correct Answers: C

Question 18
A customer is experiencing bottlenecks in their current IT environment and has expressed a desire to address this issue. The next step for a storage sales specialist would be to
A.present IBM’s On Demand storage strategy to the customer.
B.arrange a meeting with the Board of Directors.
C.quote storage infrastructure that addresses the customer’s issue.
D.determine the customer’s timeframe and budget for a solution.
Correct Answers: D

Question 19
A customer is interested in purchasing a new IBM TotalStorage DS8000 solution to consolidate older ESS and F20 storage systems. What should be done prior to final proposal development?
A.Perform a Disk Magic study.
B.Review e-config with an IBM System Storage Field Technical Sales Support person.
C.Confirm that the customer has enough ports available in the SAN infrastructure.
D.Submit configuration to IBM System Storage Interoperability Center for validation.
Correct Answers: A

Question 20
A customer has a remote engineering location, where both Microsoft Windows and IBM AIX workstations need to share common design and analysis data. 000-743 dumps The proposed solution needs to be cost effective and utilize existing infrastructure. What is the best solution for this requirement?
A.IBM TotalStorage N3700
B.IBM TotalStorage SAN Volume Controller
C.IBM TotalStorage DS4300
D.IBM TotalStorage SAN File System
Correct Answers: A
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Best IBM certifications I 000-740 Dumps Exam Questions And Answers (1-20)

QUESTION 1
A customer wants their LAN-based applications to access their SAN storage; however, they do not want to pay the high expense required for Fibre Channel HBAs or application of a NAS gateway. Which of the following IBM System Storage products would be appropriate for this customer?
A.IBM Switch L10 (2006-L10) Switch with Arbitrated Loop
B.IBM SAN16B-R multi-protocol router (2109-A16) with iSCSI
C.IBM SAN24M-1 (2026-224) Switch
D.IBM SAN File System
Correct Answers: B

QUESTION 2
If the NVRAM in one of the nodes in a dual head filer fails, which of the following actions will the IBM N3700 take?
A.All writes on the node with the failed NVRAM will be written through.
B.The filer will notify the administrator to issue a CF takeover command so that activity fails over to the other node.
C.The filer will notify the administrator to power off the failing node so that a forced takeover is done by the other node.
D.The failing node will automatically failover to its partner filer node and serve data.
Correct Answers: D

QUESTION 3
The IBM N Series subsystems include which of the following no-charge features?
A.SnapLock
B.SnapMirror
C.SnapShot
D.SnapVault
Correct Answers: C

QUESTION 4
In the seven tiers of disaster recovery, which of the following tiers requires physical transportation of backup media?
A.Tier 6 – Zero or little data loss
B.Tier 5 – Transaction integrity
C.Tier 4 – Point-in-time copies
D.Tier 2 – Data backup with an off-site facility
Correct Answers: D

QUESTION 5
What is a key characteristic of the IBM N Series Write Anywhere File Layout that differentiates it from other file systems and allows a filer to reboot in a short time period when an unclean shutdown is performed?
A.WAFL caches the journal of unexecuted file system requests in NVRAM.
B.WAFL stores metadata in three files – the inode file, the block-map file, and the inode-map file.
C.WAFL has a two phase commit on journaling.
D.WAFL creates a consistency point using a special Snapshot.
Correct Answers: D

QUESTION 6
Which of the following IBM N Series licensed functions enables a writable replica of data volumes and data sets?
A.FlexCache
B.FlexClone
C.SnapMirror
D.SnapShot
Correct Answers: B

QUESTION 7
Which of the following IBM Tivoli Storage Manager (TSM) products has functionality that would enable a customer to backup an existing SAN in some other way than across a LAN?
A.TSM for Storage Area Networks
B.TSM for Hardware
C.TSM Extended Edition
D.TSM for System Backup and Recovery
Correct Answers: A

QUESTION 8
A customer has an IBM SAN16B-R (2109-A16) Multiprotocol Router. 000-740 dumps They have a server in fabric A, and a storage device in fabric B. Which of the following protocols would be used to share storage resources among the fabrics without merging them?
A.FCIP
B.iSCSI
C.iFCP
D.TCP/IP
Correct Answers: A

QUESTION 9
Using multiple IBM SAN M14 Directors (2109-M14) requires which of the following enabled licenses to support FICON?
A.Port Tunneling
B.Expanded Port Feature
C.Enterprise Passthru
D.Advanced Security with CUP
Correct Answers: D

QUESTION 10
For an IBM N3700, what is the minimum root volume size?
A.2GB
B.10GB
C.72GB
D.144GB
Correct Answers: B

QUESTION 11
What are the minimum and maximum raw capacities for an IBM N3700 (2863-A10) subsystem?
A.1TB to 8TB
B.1TB to 16TB
C.2TB to 16TB
D.2TB to 32TB
Correct Answers: B

QUESTION 12
A customer wants LAN-free and server-free backups. They plan to off-load storage processing from servers and move this function onto an independent network. Which of the following should be recommended?
A.Storage Area Network (SAN)
B.Internet SCSI (iSCSI)
C.Network Attached Storage (NAS)
D.Direct Attached Storage (DAS)
Correct Answers: A

QUESTION 13
A customer wants a storage subsystem that will act as a file server to multiple workstations via LAN connections. Which of the following is the most appropriate technology?
A.Direct Attached Storage (DAS)
B.Internet SCSI (iSCSI)
C.Network Attached Storage (NAS)
D.Storage Area Network (SAN)
Correct Answers: C

QUESTION 14
The IBM N3700 is less susceptible to software hacking than other Microsoft Windows-based offerings for which of the following reasons?
A.It has WAFL.
B.It has Data ONTAP.
C.It has SecureShare.
D.It supports Kerberos and CHAP.
Correct Answers: B

QUESTION 15
Which of the following protocols is included free of charge in the IBM N3700?
A.CIFS
B.NFS
C.iSCSI
D.FCP
Correct Answers: C

QUESTION 16
Which of the following IBM N Series licensed functions enables creation of private logical partitions in filer networks?
A.FlexVol
B.LockVault
C.MultiStore
D.SnapMirror
Correct Answers: C

QUESTION 17
Which feature of Cisco Fabric Manager is designed to integrate with other management tools?
A.The specific vendor plug-in offered by Cisco
B.The Cisco Agent on the host system
C.A request form for a feature enhancement to Cisco
D.The Application Program Interface
Correct Answers: D

QUESTION 18
A customer has two sites located several kilometers apart. The customer has both high-speed Internet link and dark fiber between the sites. The customer wants to utilize storage resources at either site such as peer-to-peer copy and disaster recovery implementation. To link these two sites together, installing which of the following would provide the highest performance and be most reliable?
A.DWDM or CWDM pipe
B.An iFCP router
C.An FCIP router
D.An FCP extender
Correct Answers: A

QUESTION 19
A customer has a SAN that includes storage from multiple vendors. The storage growth rate isover 60%. The customer is concerned about having older technology. 000-740 dumps They want to migrate data with little disruption. Which of the following solutions would best address the requirements?
A.- Determine the total amount of storage used and add additional storage for growth. – Recommend IBM N series to replace all systems including additional storage in order to accommodate the growth calculation. – Recommend using NFS copies to migrate data.
B.- Determine the total amount of storage used. – Recommend DS6000 and DS8000 subsystems to replace all subsystems, use remote copy for migrating data.
C.- Determine the total amount of storage used. – Recommend SAN Volume Controller, DS6000 and DS8000 to replace all subsystems including additional storage to accommodate the growth calculation. – Recommend using remote copy for migrating data.
D.- Determine the total amount of storage used and add additional storage for growth. – Recommend the IBM SAN Volume Controller and additional DS6000 and DS8000 subsystems to accommodate the growth
calculation. – Recommend using SVC to migrate data.
Correct Answers: D

QUESTION 20
If a company wants to move its customer order data to a N3700 and needs a high availability solution, which of the following features should be considered?
A.Snapshot licensed on two (2) N3700 filers
B.SnapRestore licensed on two (2) N3700 filers
C.DFM installed on two (2) N3700 filers
D.A dual node N3700
Correct Answers: D

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