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The latest Cisco CCIE 400-101 exam dumps and exercises test questions and answers, These free exercises will help you improve 400-101 CCIE Routing and Switching test skills, We share 400-101 pdf for free to download and learn, and you can also watch 400-101 YouTube videos online! We share 40 real effective exam questions and answers for free if you want to get the full 400-101 exam dumps: https://www.leads4pass.com/400-101.html (Total questions:283 Q&A)->> updated throughout the year! Make sure you pass the exam easily!

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400-101 CCIE Routing and Switching – Cisco: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/training-events/training-certifications/exams/current-list/ccie-routing-switching.html

Latest effective Cisco 400-101 Exam Practice Tests

QUESTION 1
Which three message type are used for prefix delegation in DHCPv6?(Choose threE.
A. Solicit
B. Renew
C. Advertise
D. DHCP Discover
E. DHCPAck
F. DHCP Offer
Correct Answer: ABC


QUESTION 2
Which option describes how a VTPv3 device responds when it detects a VTPv2 device on a trunk port?
A. It sends VTPv2 packets only
B. It sends a Special packet that contains VTPv3 and VTPv2 packets information.
C. It sends VTPv3 packets only.
D. It sends VTPv3 and VTPv2 packets.
Correct Answer: D


QUESTION 3

leads4pass 400-101 exam question - q1

Refer to exhibit. Which statement is true about a valid IPv6 address that can be configured on tunnel interface0 ?
A. 2001:7DCB:5901::/128 is a valid IPv6 address
B. 6to4 tunneling allows you to use any IPv6 address
C. 2002:7DCB:5901::/128 is a valid IPV6 address
D. There is not enough information to calculate the IPv6 address
Correct Answer: C


QUESTION 4
Which statement about passive interfaces is true?
A. The interface with the IS-IS passive interface configuration sends the IP address of that interface in the link-state
protocol data units
B. The interface with the EIGRP passive interface configuration ignores routes after the exchange of hello packets.
C. The interface with the OSPF passive interface configuration appears as a not-so-stubby network.
D. Passive interface can be configured on the interface for IS-IS.
Correct Answer: A


QUESTION 5
Which two protocols exclude the source and destination IPaddresses from the application data stream?
(Choose two)
A. TFTP
B. NTP
C. SMTP
D. SSH
E. SNMP
Correct Answer: BC


QUESTION 6
From which component does an IS-IS router construct its link-state database?
A. LSAs
B. Hello packets
C. LSPs
D. SPTs
Correct Answer: C


QUESTION 7
R1#sh ip eigrp top all IP-EIGRP Topology Table for AS (192.168.13.1) Codes: P – Passive, A – Active, U – Update, Q-
Query, R – Reply, r – reply Status, s – sia Status P 10.0.0.0/8, 1 successors, FD is 3586560, serno 8 via 192.168.1.5
(3586560/3074560), Serial0/0 P 192.168.100.0/24, 2 successors, FD is 409600, serno 5 via 192.168.13.3
(409600/128256), FastEthernet0/1 via 192.168.12.3 (435200/409600), FastEthernet0/0
Refer to the exhibit. Which statements about the 192.168.100.0/24 destination network is true?
A. The metric installed into the route table is 128256
B. The Reported Distance for the Feasible Successor is 409600
C. The metric installed into the route table is 435200
D. The Reported Distance for the Successor is 128256
Correct Answer: D


QUESTION 8
Which two solutions can reduce UDP latency? (Choose two)
A. low-latency queuing
B. congestion-avoidance algorithm
C. fast retransmission
D. IP service level agreements
E. fast start
F. fast recovery
Correct Answer: AD


QUESTION 9
Which statements about PMTUD is true?
A. GRE tunnels use PMTUD to fragment data packets by default.
B. It increases the connection\\’s send MSS value to prevent fragmentation.
C. It is used to prevent fragmentation of packets at the endpoint of a TCP connection
D. It is supported by TCP and UDP
E. It is used to prevent fragmentation of packets traveling across a smaller MTU link between
Correct Answer: E


QUESTION 10
Which two statements about OSPFv3 are true? (Choose two.)
A. lt supports the use of a cluster ID for loop prevention.
B. It supports unicast address families for IPv6 only.
C. lt supports unicast address families for 1Pv4 and 1Pv6
D. lt supports only one address family per instance.
E. It supports multicast address families for 1Pv4
F. lt supports multicast address families for 1Pv6
Correct Answer: CD


QUESTION 11
Which two statements about SSM are true? (Choose two)
A. It requires IGMPv3 for source filtering.
B. It can work in conjunction with the ISM service.
C. It uses the group address range 233.0.0.0 – 233.255.255.255 by default
D. It is designed to support many-to-many applications within a PIM domain.
E. It uses (*, G) multicast routing entries to make forwarding decisions.
Correct Answer: AB


QUESTION 12
An NSSA area has two ABRs connected to Area 0. Which statement is true?
A. Both ABRs translate Type-7 LSAs to Type-5 LSAs
B. The ABR with the highest router ID translates Type-7 LSAs to Type-5 LSAs
C. No LSA translation is needed
D. Both ABRs forward Type-5 LSAs from the NSSA area to backbone area
Correct Answer: B


QUESTION 13
Which three statements correctly describe the encoding used by NETCONF and RESTCONF? (Choose three)
A. RESTCONF uses JSON-encoded data
B. RESTCONF uses YAML-encoded data
C. RESTCONF uses XML-encoded data
D. NETCONF uses JSON-encoded data
E. NETCONF uses YAML-encoded data
F. NETCONF uses XML-encoded data
Correct Answer: ACF


QUESTION 14leads4pass 400-101 exam question - q14Refer to the exhibit. The route-map wau2sitc is being used for redistributing BGP routes into the eigrp 28 process.
Which option best describes the resulting redistribution of routes?
A. The deny, sequence 5 is preventing any routes from and a lag
B. A default routes is being redistributed with a metric and a tag
C. all routes are being redistributed with a metric and a tag
D. policy routing matches: 0 packets means that there are no matches and no routes are being redistributed
Correct Answer: A


QUESTION 15
Which two statement about VPLS are true? (Choose two)
A. Split horizon is used on PE devices to prevent loops.
B. IP is used to switch Ethernet frames between sites.
C. Spanning tree is extended from CE to CE
D. VPLS extends a layer 2 broadcast domain.
E. PE routers dynamic associate to peers.
Correct Answer: AD


QUESTION 16
Which two statements about IS-IS authentication are true ?(Choose two.)
A. Level 2 LSPs transmit the password encrypted inside the IS-IS PDU.
B. Area and domain authentication must be configured together.
C. Passwords can be configured on a per-interface basis.
D. If LSP authentication is in use , unauthorized devices can form neighbor adjacencies.
E. Lever 1 LSPs use the domain password.
Correct Answer: AC


QUESTION 17
Refer to the exhibit.

leads4pass 400-101 exam question - q17

If the route to 10.1.1.1 is removed from the R2 routing table, which server becomes the master NTP server?
A. R2
B. the NTP server at 10.3.3.3
C. the NTP server at 10.4.4.4
D. the NTP server with the lowest stratum number
Correct Answer: D


QUESTION 18leads4pass 400-101 exam question - q18Refer to the exhibit. Which two effects of this configuration are true? (Choose two)
A. The priority queue is disabled
B. Queue 1 is served twice as fast as queue 2
C. Queue 1 is a priority queue that is allocated 1/3 of the available bandwidth
D. Queue 2 is served twice as fast as queue 1
E. Queue 1 is a priority queue that is allocated 2/3 of the available bandwidth
F. Queue 1 is allocated 2 percent of the available bandwidth and queue 2 is allocated 2 percent of the available
bandwidth
Correct Answer: AB


QUESTION 19
What are three of the key fields that define a unique NetFlow flow ( choose three)
A. Source MAC address
B. Cyclic Redundancy Check
C. Layer 3 protocol type
D. Type of service
E. Input logical interface
F. Canonical Format Identifier
Correct Answer: CDE


QUESTION 20
Which three technologies can be used to implement redundancy for IPv6? (Choose three.
A. IPv6 NA
B. NHRP
C. HSRP
D. DVMRP
E. GLBP
F. IPv6 RA
Correct Answer: CEF


QUESTION 21
Which three pieces of information are carried on OSPF type-3 LSAs? (Choose three
A. metric
B. link state
C. subnet mask
D. IP subnet
E. authentication type
F. external route tag
Correct Answer: ABC


QUESTION 22
Which two operating modes does VPLS support? (Choose two)
A. Transport mode
B. Loose mode
C. VLAN mode
D. Strict mode
E. Port mode
F. Dynamic mode
Correct Answer: CE


QUESTION 23
Which IP SLA operation type is enhanced by lhe use of the IP SL.As Responder?
A. ICMP Echo
B. UDP Echo
C. DNS
D. HTTP
Correct Answer: B


QUESTION 24
Which two values are required to implement an EIGRP named configurations? (Choose two)
A. address-family
B. virtual-instance-name
C. subnet-mask
D. router-id
E. process-id
Correct Answer: AB


QUESTION 25
Which option is the Cisco recommended method to secure access to the console port?
A. Set the privilege level to a value less than 15
B. Configure a very short timeout (less than 100 milliseconds) for the port
C. Configure the activation-character command
D. Configure an ACL
Correct Answer: C


QUESTION 26
When you implement PIR, which IP SLA probes is used to determine the MOS?
A. throughput
B. jitter
C. latency
D. packet loss
Correct Answer: B


QUESTION 27
Refer To the exhibit.leads4pass 400-101 exam question - q27

When pockets are transmitted from r1 to r2, where are they encrypted?
A. on the EO/0 interface on R1
B. on the outside interface
C. in the forwarding engine
D. in the tunnel
E. within the crypto map
F. on the EO/1 interface on R2
Correct Answer: A


QUESTION 28
Refer to the exhibit. Which statement correctly describes the output?leads4pass 400-101 exam question - q28

A. This router runs NTPv6
B. This router runs OSPFv3 and is not a DR
C. A directly connected router on another interface than this one will be able to successfully ping the link local address
of Gi2/0
D. This router runs EIGRpv6
Correct Answer: B


QUESTION 29
which two conditions are required for tracking the interface IP routing state?(choose two)
A. The interface line protocol must be up
B. Cisco Express Forwarding must be disable on the interface
C. A VRF must be enabled on the interface
D. A known IP address must be configured on the interface
E. IP routing must be disabled on the interface
Correct Answer: AD


QUESTION 30
How long will the root bridge continue to send configuration BPDUs to notify all bridges to age out their MAC address
tables?
A. The max-age time
B. The forward delay + max-age time
C. The forward delay time
D. Three times the hello interval
Correct Answer: B


QUESTION 31
Which three options are the main security features in SNMPv3? (Choose three)
A. authentication
B. MIB persistence
C. message integrity
D. authorization
E. encryption
F. accounting
Correct Answer: ACE


QUESTION 32
Which statement about Cisco Express Forwarding is true
A. The FIB tables resides on the route processor and the adjacency table resides on the line cards when Cisco Express
Forwarding is enabled.
B. Layer 2 next-hop address information is maintained in the adjacency table.
C. The FIB table and the adjacency table reside on the line cards when Cisco Express Forwarding is enabled.
D. Layer 2 next-hop address information is maintained in the FIB table.
Correct Answer: A


QUESTION 33
Company A have two remote sites, which are connected to a common ISP by BGP. At each site, company A is using
the same autonomous system number. Which BGP feature can you implement to enable routing between the two site?
A. allowas-in
B. AS path prepending
C. communities
D. peer groups
Correct Answer: A


QUESTION 34
Which three criteria are used for stackwise election of a master switch?
A. lowest MAC address
B. Vl.AN revision number
C. longest uptime
D. user-selected priority
E. highest MAC address
F. IOS version number
Correct Answer: ACD


QUESTION 35
External EIGRP route exchange on routers R1 and R2 was failing because the routers had duplicate router IDs.
You changed the eigrp router-id command on R1, but the problem persists. Which additional action must you take to
enable the routers to exchange routes?
A. Clear the EIGRP process
B. Change the router ID on R2.
C. Reset the EIGRP neighbor relationship.
D. Change the corresponding loopback address.
Correct Answer: A


QUESTION 36
Refer to the exhibit.leads4pass 400-101 exam question - q36Which two statements about the given NetFlow configuration are true?(Choose two)
A. It supports both IPv4 and IPv6 flows.
B. It uses the default port to send flows to the exporter.
C. It supports only IPv6 flows.
D. It supports only IPv4 flows.
E. It supports a maximum of 2048 entres.
Correct Answer: BD


QUESTION 37
Which command can you enter to allow a multicast-enabled router to advertise itself to the BSR router as PIMv2 c-RP?
A. ip pim autorp listener
B. ip pim send-rp-announce
C. ip pim rp-candidate
D. ip pim rp-address
E. ip pim send-rp- discovery
Correct Answer: C


QUESTION 38leads4pass 400-101 exam question - q38How can you configure this network so that customers can transparently extend their networks through the provider?
A. Configure eBGP peering among the CE routers
B. Configure OSPF peering between the CE and PE routers.
C. Configure eBGP peering between the CE and PE routers
D. Configure EIGRP OTP on the CE routers.
Correct Answer: D


QUESTION 39
Refer to the exhibit.leads4pass 400-101 exam question - q39Which BGP feature is being used?
A. graceful shutdown
B. graceful restart
C. PIC
D. fast session deactivation
Correct Answer: D


QUESTION 40
Refer to the exhibit.leads4pass 400-101 exam question - q40When it attempted to register the EEM script, the device returned this error message. Which action can you take to
correct the problem?
A. Configure the end command at the end of the BACKUP EEM policy
B. Configure the event none command so that the event can be triggered manually
C. Configure the event action to run the applet
D. Configure the event manager run command to register the event
Correct Answer: C

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The latest Cisco CCIE 400-051 exam dumps and exercises test questions and answers,These free exercises will help you improve 400-051 CCIE Collaboration test skills,We share 400-051 pdf for free to download and learn, and you can also watch 400-051 YouTube videos online! We share 40 real effective exam questions and answers for free if you want to get the full 400-051 exam dumps: https://www.leads4pass.com/400-051.html (Total questions:705 Q&A) ->> updated throughout the year! Make sure you pass the exam easily!

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400-051 CCIE Collaboration – Cisco: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/training-events/training-certifications/exams/current-list/ccie-collaboration.html

Latest effective Cisco 400-051 Exam Practice Tests

QUESTION 1
Refer to the exhibit.leads4pass 400-051 exam question-q1 Cisco unity connection site A has two locations and Cisco Unity connection Site B has one Location. Which protocol
connect the location and servers together for messaging and replication?
A. 1 SMTP 2 – HTTP/HTTPS, SMTP 3 None
B. 1 HTTP/HTTPS, SMTP 2 SMTP 3 None
C. 1 – HTTP/HTTPS, SMTP 2 – HTTP/HTTPS, SMTP 3 – HTTP/HTTPS, SMTP
D. 1 SMTP 1 SMTP 1 SMTP
Correct Answer: A


QUESTION 2
Refer to the exhibit.leads4pass 400-051 exam question-q2

A customer has two Cisco Unified Communication manager 9.X clusters that serve the same location. An engineer has
attempted to set up Enhanced Location call admission control so that any call within a site between phones on the two
clusters do not decrement the available bandwidth to and from that site. However, the real time monitoring tool currently
shows bandwidth being used from the site to Hub_none. When a call is placed between phones at the site, which action
must be taken to correct this situation?
A. The link between clusters must be a type of inter-cluster trunk instead of a sip trunk.
B. The hub_none location must have a link configuration to the phantom location.
C. The device pool names must match between clusters.
D. The Hub_none location must have a link configured to the shadow location.
E. The SIP trunks should be changed to use the shadow location.
Correct Answer: E


QUESTION 3
Assume a 30-millisecond voice payload, 6 bytes for the Layer 2 header, 1 byte for the end- of-frame flag, and the IP,
UDP, and RTP headers are compressed to 2 bytes, how much bandwidth should be allocated to the strict priority queue
for eight VoIP calls that use a
A. 729 codec over a multilink PPP link with cRTP enabled?
B. 121.6 kb/s
C. 92.8 kb/s
D. 88.4 kb/s
E. 83.2 kb/s
F. 78.4 kb/s
Correct Answer: D
Reference: http://www.cisco.com/en/US/tech/tk652/tk698/technologies_tech_note09186a0080094ae2.shtml


QUESTION 4
In Cisco IOS routers that use low latency queuing, which algorithm is used to presort traffic going into the default
queue?
A. first-in, first-out
B. last-in, first-out
C. weighted round robin
D. fair queuing E. random processing
Correct Answer: D
WFQ is a flow-based queuing algorithm used in Quality of Service (QoS) that does two things simultaneously: It
schedules interactive traffic to the front of the queue to reduce response time, and it fairly shares the remaining
bandwidth between high bandwidth flows. A stream of packets within a single session of a single application is known
as flow or conversation. WFQ is a flow-based method that sends packets over the network and ensures packet
transmission efficiency which is critical to the interactive traffic. This method automatically stabilizes network congestion
between individual packet transmission flows.


QUESTION 5
Refer to the exhibit.leads4pass 400-051 exam question-q5Which ds0-group option should you select to support automated number identification information collection on inbound
calls for this digital T1 voice circuit?
A. eandm-wink-start
B. eandm-delay-dial
C. eandm-delay-dial
D. eandm-lmr
E. eandm-fgd
Correct Answer: E
Because it can receive ANI information and sends DNIS info. But can\\’t send ANI.
Reference:
http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/ios-xml/ios/voice/isdn/configuration/15-mt/vi-15-mt- book/vi-imp-t1cas-voip.html


QUESTION 6
Which configuration parameter defines whether or not the user portion of a directory URI is case sensitive on Cisco
Unified Communications Manager 9.1 or later?
A. URI Dialing Display Preference in Cisco CallManager Service Parameter
B. URI Lookup Policy in Cisco CallManager Service Parameter
C. URI Dialing Display Preference in Enterprise Parameters
D. URI Lookup Policy in Enterprise Parameters
E. The user portion of a directory URI is always case sensitive and cannot be changed.
Correct Answer: D
Explanation: Cisco Unified Communications Manager supports the following formats in the user portion of a directory
URI (the portion before the @ symbol):
Accepted characters are a-z, A-Z, 0-9, !, $, %, and, *, _, +, ~, -, =, \, ?, \, `, ,, ., /. The user portion has a maximum length
of 47 characters. The user portion accepts percent encoding from %2[0-9A-F] through %7[0-9A-F]. For some accepted
characters, Unified CM automatically applies percent encoding. See below for more information on percent encoding.
The user portion is case-sensitive or case-insensitive depending on the value of the URI Lookup Policy enterprise
parameter. The default value is case-sensitive.
Reference:
http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/voice_ip_comm/cucm/bat/9_1_1/CUCM_BK_C271A6 9D_00_cucm-bulk-
administration-guide-91/CUCM_BK_C271A69D_00_cucm-bulk- administration-guide-91_chapter_01001110.html


QUESTION 7
Which two call processing features have a lower priority than the Do Not Disturb settings on a Cisco IP phone? (Choose
two.)
A. park reversion for a locally parked call
B. hold reversion
C. intercom
D. pickup notification
E. terminating side of a call back
F. originating side of a call back
Correct Answer: DE
For the DND Ringer Off option, only visual notification gets presented to the device. For the DND Call Reject option, no
notification gets presented to the device. For the terminating side of the call, Do Not Disturb overrides call back:
When the phone that terminates the call uses DND Ringer Off, the Callback Available screen will be displayed on the
phone after the terminating side goes off hook and on hook.
When the phone that terminates the call has DND Call Reject enabled but the phone becomes available (goes off hook
and on hook), a new screen will be presented to the originating device as ” has become available but is on
DND-R”. Callback available notification will be sent only after the terminating side disables DND Call Reject.


QUESTION 8
Your customer reported that the Sync Agent service failed to start after a reinstallation of a Cisco this problem after you
review these customer logs?
A. Add “appadmin” application user in Cisco UCM and IM and Presence
B. Add “appadmin” application user in Ciscon IM and Presence
C. Add “appaduser” application user in Cisco UCM
D. Add “appadmin” application user in Cisco UCM
E. Add “appaduser” application user in Cisco UCM and IM and Presence
Correct Answer: D


QUESTION 9
What is the maximum delay requirement, in milliseconds, for deploying Cisco Unity Connection servers in active/active
pairs over different sites?
A. 150
B. 200
C. 100
D. 250
Correct Answer: C


QUESTION 10
Which option describes how you can show the same contacts in your Jabber for Windows on-premise client as you do
on the corporate directory of your IP phone?
A. Switch your Jabber client to use UDS instead of EDI.
B. Switch your Jabber client to use EDI instead of UDS.
C. Update your IMandP server to sync off of the same LDAP directory as your Cisco Unified Communications Manager.
D. Add Jabber to your inbound/outbound firewall rules on your PC.
E. Jabber can only pull directly from LDAP and cannot directly search the Cisco Unified Communications Manager user
database.
Correct Answer: A
LDAP contact resolution — The client cannot use LDAP for contact resolution when outside of the corporate firewall.
Instead, the client must use UDS for contact resolution. When users are inside the corporate firewall, the client can use
either
UDS or LDAP for contact resolution. If you deploy LDAP within the corporate firewall, Cisco recommends that you
synchronize your LDAP directory server with Cisco Unified Communications Manager to allow the client to connect with
UDS when users are outside the corporate firewall.
Reference:
http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/voice_ip_comm/jabber/Windows/9_7/JABW_BK_C4 C679C9_00_cisco-jabber-for-
windows-97/JABW_BK_C4C679C9_00_cisco-jabber-for- windows-97_chapter_0111.html#CJAB_CN_C2733196_00


QUESTION 11
Where can a Cisco Unified CM administrator define Call Detail Records data collection interval (Choose two.)
A. Cisco Unified Reporting
B. Cisco Unified CM Administration Enterprise Parameters
C. Cisco Unified Serviceability
D. Cisco Unified CM Administration Service Parameters
E. Call Detail Records data collection interval is not a configurable parameter.
Correct Answer: B


QUESTION 12
A collaboration engineer configures Cisco Unified CM location using G.711 and iLBC for each site. The bandwidth for
each link is shown. Which two options represent the maximum concurrent number of calls supported by grand junction
to Casper for each Codec? (Choose two.)
A. 20 G.711 calls
B. 18 G.711 calls
C. 36 iLBC calls
D. 42 iLBC calls
E. 11 G.711 calls
F. 51 iLBC calls
Correct Answer: CE


QUESTION 13
Which procedure uses H.225 messages to exchange H.245 Master-Salve Determination information?
A. H.323 early media
B. H.245 terminal capability set
C. H 225 tunneling
D. H.245 tunneling
E. H.323 Fast Connect
Correct Answer: D


QUESTION 14
Which statement about high availability for XMPP federation in Cisco IM and Presence is true?
A. A maximum of two Cisco IM and Presence nodes can be enabled for XMPP federation.
B. Cisco IM and Presence load balances outbound requests across all nodes that are enabled for XMPP federation.
C. Cisco IM and Presence load balances outbound requests across both nodes that are enabled for XMPP federation in
a subcluster.
D. The XMPP federation-enabled nodes should have different priorities and weights on the published DNS SRV for
proper inbound request node selection.
E. A single DNS SRV record that resolves to an XMPP federation-enabled node must be published on a public DNS
server for inbound request routing.
Correct Answer: B
High availability for XMPP federation differs from the high availability model for other IM and Presence Service features
because it is not tied to the two node sub-cluster model. To provide high availability for XMPP federation, you must
enable two or more IM and Presence Service nodes in your cluster for XMPP federation; having multiple nodes enabled
for XMPP federation not only adds scale but it also provides redundancy in the event that any node fails.


QUESTION 15leads4pass 400-051 exam question-q15

An IT engineer upgraded Cisco Unified Communications Manager to version 9.1.2. When accessing CLI of the server,
this output is displayed.
Which three actions must be taken to correct this issue? (Choose Three)
A. From the recovery disk menu options, select option [F] to check and correct disk file system
B. Login to DRS and perform Cisco Unified CM restore from the backup
C. From the recovery disk menu option, select option [Q] to quit recovery program and reboot the virtual machine
D. Download Cisco unified CM recovery iso, boot the virtual machine from it and verify disk partitioning layout
E. Create a new virtual machine from Cisco ova template and create a fresh install with the Cisco Unified CM bootable
iso
F. Take the backup of the system with disaster recovery system
G. From the recovery disk menu options, select option [A] to align the partitions of the virtual machines
Correct Answer: BEF


QUESTION 16
A user has reported that when trying to access Visual Voicemail the following error is received
“Unable to open application. Please try again later. If it continues to fail contact your administrator”. The collaboration
engineer is working on the problem found on the following phone logs:
CVMInstallerModule STATUS_install_cancelled
STATUS_INSTALL)_ERROR [thread=installer MQThread][class=cip midp midletsuite installerModule][function=update
status] Midlet install Canceled/ERROR…visual
Voicemail
How can this issue be resolved?
A. Replace the sever name with the server IP on service URL field
B. Eliminate the space in the service Name field
C. Configure DNS on phone configuration so it can resolve server name
D. Check the Enable checkbox on IP phone service configuration
Correct Answer: B


QUESTION 17
Which Cisco IM and Presence service is responsible for logging all IM traffic that passes through the IM and Presence
server to an external database for IM compliance?
A. Cisco Presence Engine
B. Cisco Serviceability Reporter
C. Cisco Sync Agent
D. Cisco XCP Connection Manager
E. Cisco XCP Message Archiver
Correct Answer: E
The Cisco Unified Presence XCP Message Archiver service supports the IM Compliance feature. The IM Compliance
feature logs all messages sent to and from the Cisco Unified Presence server, including point-to-point messages, and
messages from adhoc (temporary) and permanent chat rooms for the Chat feature. Messages are logged to an external
Cisco-supported database.


QUESTION 18
Exhibit:leads4pass 400-051 exam question-q18Which two phone security functions are available to this Cisco IP phone? (Choose two.)
A. Default Authentication of TFTP downloaded files using a signing key
B. Encryption of TFTP configuration files using a signing key
C. Encrypted call signalling but unencrypted call media
D. Encrypted call media but unencrypted call signalling
E. Encrypted call signalling and media
F. Local trust verification on the
Correct Answer: AB


QUESTION 19
A CUCM engineer has deployed Type B SIP Phones on a remote site and no SIP dial rules were deployed for these
phones. How Will CUCM receive the DTMF after the phone goes off- hook and the button are pressed?
A. Each digit will be received by CUCM in a SIP NOTIFY message as soon as they are pressed
B. The first digit will be received in a sip invite and subsequent digits will be received using NOTIFY message as soon
as they are pressed.
C. Each digit bill be received by CUCM in a SIP INVITE as soon as the dial soft key has been pressed.
D. All digits will be received by CUCM in a SIP INVITE as soon as the dial soft key has been pressed
Correct Answer: A
Type-B IP telephones offer functionality based on the Key Press Markup Language (KPML) to report user key presses.
Each one of the user input events will generate its own KPML-based message to Unified CM. From the standpoint of
relaying each user action immediately to Unified CM, this mode of operation is very similar to that of phones running
SCCP.leads4pass 400-051 exam question-q19Every user key press triggers a SIP NOTIFY message to Unified CM to report a KPML event corresponding to the key
pressed by the user. This messaging enables Unified CM\\’s digit analysis to recognize partial patterns as they are
composed by the user and to provide the appropriate feedback, such as immediate reorder tone if an invalid number is
being dialed.
In contrast to Type-A IP phones running SIP without dial rules, Type-B SIP phones have no Dial key to indicate the end
of user input. A user dialing 1000 would be provided call progress indication (either ringback tone or reorder tone) after
dialing the last 0 and without having to press the Dial key. This behavior is consistent with the user interface on phones
running the SCCP protocol.
http://www.cisco.com/en/US/docs/voice_ip_comm/cucm/srnd/5x/50dialpl.html#wp1090653
https://supportforums.cisco.com/document/87236/working-concept-sccp-sip-phones-and-dial-rules


QUESTION 20
Which Cisco Unified CM Application user is created by default and used by Cisco Unified CM Extension Mobility?
A. CCMAdministrator
B. EMSysUser
C. TabSyncSysUser
D. CCMSysUser
E. CTIGWUser
Correct Answer: D


QUESTION 21
Which design restriction applies to Cisco Unified Communications Manager Session Management Edition clustering
over the WAN deployment with extended round-trip times in Cisco Unified CM 9.1 and later releases?
A. SIP and H.323 intercluster trunks are supported.
B. Only SIP trunk is supported.
C. SIP trunks and H.323 gateways are supported.
D. A minimum of 1.544 Mb/s bandwidth is required for all traffic between any two nodes in the cluster.
E. Only RSVP agents can be configured and registered to the SME cluster as media resources.
Correct Answer: B
Using only SIP trunks in the SME cluster allows you to deploy a “media transparent” cluster where media resources,
when required, are inserted by the end or leaf Unified Communications system and never by SME. Using only SIP
trunks also allows you to use extended round trip times (RTTs) between SME nodes when clustering over the WAN.


QUESTION 22
A Jabber for window user is on a call with cisco telepresence EX90 endpoint at the same location. During the call, the
video on the jabber for Windows application was high quality but the video on the EX90 was choppy and slow. When the
administrator checked the service rate on the EX90 it showed 2048 Kbps. Which two configuration changes can fix this
problem?
A. Lower the bit rate in the region configuration in communication manager between the endpoints
B. Increase the location bandwidth for immersive video between the endpoints
C. Enable BFCP in the SIP profile for the jabber client
D. Enable H.263 on the EX90
E. Replace the camera for the jabber user with the precision HD USB camera
F. Increase the bandwidth between the jabber video client and the EX90
Correct Answer: EF


QUESTION 23
Refer to the exhibit.leads4pass 400-051 exam question-q23What does an outside caller hear when calling a user and forwarding to Cisco Unity Connection?
A. The caller hears the Emergency greeting, followed by the voicemail greeting of the user they originally called.
B. The caller hears the message “Emergency Message is not available,” followed by the voicemail greeting of the user
they originally called.
C. The caller hears the emergency greeting followed by the Opening Greeting message.
D. The caller hears the Main Message greeting and then the call is disconnected.
Correct Answer: B


QUESTION 24
Which codec complexity mode, when deployed on Cisco IOS routers with DSPs using the C5510 chipset, supports the
most G.711 calls per DSP?
A. Low
B. Medium
C. High
D. Secure
E. Flex
Correct Answer: E
The flex parameter allows the complexity to automatically adjust to either medium or high complexity depending on the
needs of a call. For example, if a call uses the G.711 codec, the C5510 chipset automatically adjusts to the medium-
complexity mode. However, if the call uses G.729, the C5510 chipset uses the high complexity mode


QUESTION 25
An engineer configuration EmCC needs to understand the priority order in which the home Cluster concatenates calling
search space (CSS) when users login to the visiting Phones.
Drag the CSS on the left to the correct priority order on the right. Not all options will be used.
Priority 1 is the highest and priority 3 is the lowest.
Select and Place:leads4pass 400-051 exam question-q25Correct Answer: leads4pass 400-051 exam question-q25-1

QUESTION 26
Which two rules apply to MMOH in SRST? (Choose two.)
A. A maximum of three MOH groups are allowed.
B. Cisco Unified SRST voice gateway allows you to associate phones with different MOH groups on the basis of their IP
address to receive different MOH media streams.
C. A maximum of five media streams are allowed.
D. Cisco Unified SRST voice gateway allows you to associate phones with different MOH groups on the basis of their
MAC address to receive different MOH media streams.
E. Cisco Unified SRST voice gateway allows you to associate phones with different MOH groups on the basis of their
extension numbers to receive different MOH media streams.
Correct Answer: CE


QUESTION 27
Refer to the exhibit.

leads4pass 400-051 exam question-q27

How many SIP signaling transaction(s) took place in this SIP message exchange between two SIP user agents?
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
E. 5
F. 6
Correct Answer: C
During the establishment, maintenance and termination of a SIP session, signaling messages are exchanged between
the two SIP endpoints. There are two different kinds of signaling “conversations” that those messages take part in:
transactions and dialogs.
A transaction is a SIP message exchange between two user-agents that starts with a request and ends with its final
response (it can also contain zero or more provisional responses in between). For example, during the termination of a
SIP session, one user releases the call by sending a BYE request and the other party replies back with a 200 OK
response. This message exchange is called a transaction. But what happens in the case of the INVITE request? The
establishment of a SIP session starts basically with an INVITE request and is considered as completed upon the receipt
of the ACK. In this case, the transaction starts with the INVITE request and ends with the 200 OK, so the ACK is not
part of the transaction. The ACK can be considered as a transaction on its own. However, when the final response to an
INVITE is not a 2xx response, then the ACK is considered as part of the transaction. A dialog is a complete exchange of
SIP messages between two user-agents. That means that transactions are actually parts of a dialog. For example, in
the case of a SIP session establishment, a dialog starts with the INVITE-200 OK transaction, continues with the ACK
and ends with the BYE-200 OK transaction. The picture below depicts the dialog and transactions that take place during
the establishment of a SIP session:leads4pass 400-051 exam question-q27-1Note: There can also be subsequent requests that belong to the same dialog, such as a BYE or a re-INVITE message.
As out-of-dialog requests are considered messages such as an initial INVITE request for a new session or an
OPTIONS
message for checking capabilities.
There are different SIP headers/parameters that identify the dialogs and transactions, and they will be analyzed in later
posts.
Reference: https://telconotes.wordpress.com/2013/03/13/sip-transactions-vs-dialogs/


QUESTION 28
In which call state does the Mobility soft key act as a toggle key to enable or disable Single Number Reach for Cisco
Unified Communications Manager Express SCCP IP phones?
A. idle
B. seized
C. alerting
D. ringing
E. connected
Correct Answer: A
Pressing the Mobility soft key during the idle call state enables the SNR feature. This key is a toggle; pressing it a
second time disables SNR.
Reference:
http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/voice_ip_comm/cucme/admin/configuration/guide/cm eadm/cmesnr.html


QUESTION 29
A Collaboration engineer implemented Cisco EMCC between Cisco Unified CM clusters. The administrator has
configured the bulk certificate management and exported the certificates to the SFTP server. After importing the
certificates into each of the clusters, the administrator tested Cisco EMCC on a phone, but received “Login is
unavailable (208)”. Which two steps resolve this error? (Choose two)
A. Update the cluster IDs so that they are unique in the EMCC network.
B. Enable the Allow Proxy service parameter on both clusters.
C. Restart the Cisco CallManager and Cisco Tomcat Servers.
D. Associate a user device profile for the user in the remote cluster.
E. Consolidate the exported certificates and reimport into each cluster.
Correct Answer: CE


QUESTION 30
Which two components are required when configuring the Cisco Unified Communications Manager for time-of-day
routing? (Choose three.)
A. Partition
B. Time Period
C. Time Schedule
D. Time Zone
E. Date Time Group
Correct Answer: ABC


QUESTION 31
Which statement about G.722.1 codec support on Cisco Unified Communications Manager is true?
A. It is always preferred by Cisco Unified Communications Manager over G.711.
B. It is a high-complexity wideband codec.
C. It operates at bit rates of 15.2 and 13.3 kb/s.
D. It is supported for SIP and SCCP devices.
E. It is supported for SIP and H.323 devices.
Correct Answer: E
G.722.1 is a low-complexity wideband codec operating at 24 and 32 kb/s. The audio quality approaches that of G.722
while using at most half the bit rate. As it is optimized for both speech and music, G.722.1 has slightly lower speech
quality than the speech-optimized iSAC codec. G.722.1 is supported for SIP and H.323 devices.


QUESTION 32
Which statement about a virtual SNR DN-configured Cisco Unified Communications Manager Express-enabled Cisco
IOS router is true?
A. Virtual SNR DN supports either SCCP or SIP IP phone DNs.
B. A virtual SNR DN is a DN that is associated with multiple registered IP phones.
C. Calls in progress can be pulled back from the phone that is associated with the virtual SNR DN.
D. The SNR feature can only be invoked if the virtual SNR DN is associated with at least one registered IP phone.
E. A call that arrived before a virtual SNR DN is associated with a registered phone, and still exists after association is
made, but cannot be answered from the phone.
Correct Answer: E
SCCP: Configuring a Virtual SNR DN
To configure a virtual SNR DN on Cisco Unified SCCP IP phones, perform the following steps.
Prerequisites
Cisco Unified CME 9.0 or a later version.
Restrictions
Virtual SNR DN only supports Cisco Unified SCCP IP phone DNs.
Virtual SNR DN provides no mid-call support.
Mid-calls are either of the following:
Calls that arrive before the DN is associated with a registered phone and is still present after the DN is associated with
the phone.
Calls that arrive for a registered DN that changes state from registered to virtual and back to registered.
Mid-calls cannot be pulled back, answered, or terminated from the phone associated with the DN.
State of the virtual DN transitions from ringing to hold or remains on hold as a registered DN.
http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/voice_ip_comm/cucme/admin/configuration/guide/cmeadm/cmesnr.html#38281


QUESTION 33
Where can a Cisco Unified CM administrator define Billing Application Server(s) for Call Detail Records?
A. Cisco Unified Serviceability
B. Service Parameters in Cisco Unified CM Administration.
C. Enterprise Parameters in Cisco Unified CM Administration.
D. Cisco Unified Reporting.
E. Call Detail Records data collection internal is not a configurable parameter.
Correct Answer: A


QUESTION 34
Which protocol is used by presence-enabled users in Cisco IM and Presence to control phones that are registered to
Cisco Unified Communications Manager?
A. AXL/SOAP
B. CTI/QBE
C. SIP/SIMPLE
D. LDAP
E. XMPP
Correct Answer: B
The CTI gateway provides desk phone control when users are configured for phone association mode. Proper
installation calls upon information to specify CTI gateway server names, addresses, ports, and protocols on CUPS.
Configured correctly, the CTI gateway enables users logging in to CUPC to reach the CTI gateway.


QUESTION 35
Which service, available only on the publisher server in a Cisco Unified CM cluster, is needed to enable a mixed mode
cluster?
A. Cisco Trust Verification
B. Cisco Transport Layer Security
C. Cisco CTL Provider
D. Cisco Certificate Expiry Monitor
E. Cisco Certificate Authority Proxy Function
Correct Answer: C


QUESTION 36
A Cisco Unified Contact Center Express manager wants to add database integration to the selfservice interactive voice
response application. Which four types of licensing and database servers support this requirement? (Choose four.)
A. The server must have enhanced licensing.
B. The server must have premium licensing.
C. A server running Sybase Adaptive Server is required.
D. A server running Oracle is required.
E. A server running Postgress SQL is required.
F. A server running SAP SQL server is required.
G. A server running Microsoft SQL server is required.
H. The server must have standard licensing.
Correct Answer: BCDG


QUESTION 37
Which two descriptions of +E.164 and enterprise alternate number for directory numbers in Cisco Unified
communications Manager 10.6 are true(choose two)
A. They cannot be advertised as PSTN fail over number
B. They can be added into local partition
C. If the number mask is not configured, the alternate number is invalid
D. They cannot be added into local partition
E. They are not eligible to be advertised using Global Dial Plan Replication
F. If the number mask it is not configured, use DN as alternate number
Correct Answer: BF


QUESTION 38
A Cisco Unity Connection administrator receives a name change request from a voice-mail user, whose Cisco Unity
Connection user account was imported from Cisco Unified Communications Manager. What should the administrator do
to execute this change?
A. Change the user data in the Cisco Unity Connection administration page, then use the Synch User page in Cisco
Unity Connection administration to push the change to Cisco Unified Communications Manager.
B. Change the user data in the Cisco Unified Communications Manager administration page, then use the Synch User
page in Cisco Unity Connection administration to pull the changes from Cisco Unified CM.
C. Change the user data in the Cisco Unified Communications Manager administration page, then use the Synch User
page in Cisco Unified CM administration to push the change to Cisco Unity Connection.
D. Change the user profile from Imported to Local on Cisco Unity Connection Administration, then edit the data locally
on Cisco Unity Connection.
E. Change the user data in Cisco Unity Connection and Cisco Unified Communications Manager separately
Correct Answer: B


QUESTION 39
Which route pattern is matched in Cisco Unified Communication Manager Version 11.0 when a user dials 2001?
A. 200X configured with urgent priority
B. 20[02-4]1 configured with urgent priority
C. 200! Configured with urgent priority
D. 20[*2-4]1 configured with urgent priorit
E. 20[1-4]1 configured with nonurgent priority
Correct Answer: C


QUESTION 40
Which method allows administrators to determine the best match impedance on analog voice ports in Cisco IOS router
without having to shut and no shut the ports?
A. THL tone sweep
B. original tone sweep
C. ECAN test
D. inject-tone local sweep
E. remote loop
Correct Answer: A
THL tone sweep allows all available impedances for a single test call to a quiet termination point out to the PSTN. You
do not need to manually disable ECAN on the voice port under test. The test feature switches impedances automatically
for the tester. The test feature calculates the arithmetic mean ERL and reports the mean for each channel profile at
each impedance setting. Then, at the end of the test, the feature specifies the best match impedance setting. This test
requires minimal supervision.
Reference: http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/support/docs/voice/ip-telephony-voice-over-ip- voip/64282-impedance-
choice.html

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latest free vmware vcp550 exam dumps(questions<1-44>)

 

QUESTION 1
An administrator is planning a vSphere infrastructure with the following specific networking requirements:
The ability to shape inbound (RX) traffic
Support for Private VLANs (PVLANs)
Support for LLDP (Link Layer Discovery Protocol)
What is the minimum vSphere Edition that will support these requirements?
A. vSphere Essentials Plus
B. vSphere Standard
C. vSphere Enterprise
D. vSphere Enterprise Plus
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 2
What two IT infrastructure components are virtualized by vSphere Essentials? (Choose two.)
A. Networks
B. Applications
C. Storage
D. Management
Correct Answer: AC

QUESTION 3
An administrator attempts to install vCenter Single Sign-On Server. The installer returns an error message indicating that the installation failed. Prior to the installation, all setup prerequisites were met. The administrator has generated a
vCenter Server Single Sign-On support bundle.
Which two files should the administrator analyze to determine the cause of the failure? (Choose two.)
A. Server\utils\logs\imsTrace.log
B. Server\utils\logs\install.txt
C. %TEMP%\utils\logs\vminst.log
D. %TEMP%\vminst.log
Correct Answer: AD

QUESTION 4
Which Single Sign-On deployment mode should an administrator use for two 5.x vCenter Servers configured with linked mode?
A. Basic Single Sign-On with vCenter Server Heartbeat
B. Multisite Single Sign-On
C. Basic Single Sign-On
D. Single Sign-On with Linked Mode
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 5
— Exhibit —

— Exhibit —
Which two statements below could explain why the vSphere Client is reporting N/A for hyperthreading? (Choose two.)
The physical CPUs in the host do not support hyperthreading.
A. Hyperthreading is disabled in the host’s BIOS.
B. The physical CPUs in the host are not multi-core.
C. The number of CPUs meets or exceeds the maximum without hyperthreading.
Correct Answer: AB

QUESTION 6
Immediately after installing an ESXi host, an administrator needs to examine the following log files:
var/log/hostd.log
var/log/vmkernel.log
var/log/vpxa.log
Which two connections would allow an administrator to examine these files? (Choose two.)
A. Connecting to the Direct Console User Interface
B. Attaching a vSphere Client directly to the ESXi host
C. Attaching the vSphere Web Client directly to the ESXi host
D. Attaching the vSphere Client to the vCenter Server managing the ESXi host
Correct Answer: AB

QUESTION 7
An administrator is upgrading a vSphere Distributed Switch. The existing switch is version 5.0 and the administrator wants to upgrade to the latest version possible. The environment contains several ESXi 5.1 hosts.
Which two options are available to ensure that the upgraded switch will be compatible with these hosts? (Choose two.)
A. Upgrade the vSphere Distributed Switch to 5.5
B. Upgrade the ESXi 5.1 hosts to version 5.5, then upgrade the vSphere Distributed Switch to 5.5
C. Upgrade the vSphere Distributed Switch to 5.1
D. Upgrade the ESXi host switches to 5.5, then upgrade the vSphere Distributed Switch to 5.5
Correct Answer: BC

QUESTION 8
To avoid unnecessary planned downtime, what is the minimum version of VMware Tools that, if installed, will decrease the need for virtual machine reboots following VMware Tools
upgrades?
A. 5.5
B. 5.1
C. 5.0
D. 4.1
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 9
Which two Identity Sources are available to add for vCenter Single Sign-On authentication? (Choose two.)A. LocalOS
B. OpenLDAP
C. NIS as an LDAP Server
D. VCMSDS
Correct Answer: AB

QUESTION 10
Which VLAN configuration requires switch connectivity defined as an access port?
A. Private VLAN
B. External Switch Tagging
C. Virtual Guest Tagging
D. Virtual Switch Tagging
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 11
An administrator needs to deploy several virtual machines. Storage contention between the virtual machines should be managed by the VMkernel. Some of the virtual machines will use MSCS and should be highly available across the ESXi
5.5 hosts.
Which two storage options meet these requirements? (Choose two.)
A. iSCSI
B. NFS
C. Fibre Channel
D. vSAN
Correct Answer: AC

QUESTION 12
Which two precautions should a vSphere administrator take before increasing the size of a VMFS datastore? (Choose two.)
A. Unmount the datastore
B. Perform a rescan to ensure that all hosts see the most current storage
C. Quiesce I/O on all disks involved
D. Shut down all virtual machines stored in the datastore
Correct Answer: BC

QUESTION 13
— Exhibit —

— Exhibit —
What action should the vSphere administrator take to allow for a new vApp to be created in the cluster?
A. Enable Distributed Resource Scheduling on the cluster
B. Create a Resource Pool in the cluster, and create the vApp in the Resource Pool
C. Enable High Availability on the cluster
D. Create a new Datacenter, and create the vApp in the new Datacenter
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 14
— Exhibit —

— Exhibit —
A vSphere administrator receives a report of an issue with a vApp. After connecting to the environment with the vSphere Client, the administrator does not see the vApp, but instead
sees the inventory shown in the exhibit.
What explains this behavior?
A. The administrator is connected to the ESXi host running the vApp.
B. The administrator is using the Web Client.
C. The vApp is in a partially deleted state.
D. The vApp has been converted to a resource pool.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 15
A system administrator is unable to clone a windows 2008 server while connected directly to an ESXi host through vSphere Client.
Which two methods can be used to complete the task? (Choose two.)
A. Connect to vCenter Server and retry the operation.
B. Use VMware Converter to perform the operation.
C. Connect to the host using the Web Client and retry the operation.
D. Use VMware Configuration Manager to perform the operation.
Correct Answer: AB

QUESTION 16
An administrator needs to create and provision new virtual machines from a master image that can not be edited or powered on.
Which type of resource is most appropriate for the administrator to perform the task?
A. Full Clone
B. Linked Clone
C. Template
D. Snapshot
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 17
A vSphere administrator is unable to vMotion a virtual machine between two hosts. An error message indicates that the USB device is not accessible on the target host.
What is causing this issue?
A. The USB device was not enabled for vMotion when it was added to the virtual machine.
B. ESXi does not support vMotion with a USB device attached to the virtual machine.
C. The VMkernel port for vMotion is not enabled for USB traffic.
D. The virtual machine has the wrong USB controller installed.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 18
A vSphere administrator needs to configure a virtual machine to meet a guaranteed CPU performance profile.Which configuration setting could the administrator choose?
A. Set the CPU Limit to High
B. Set the CPU Shares to 500MHz
C. Set the CPU Guarantee to High
D. Set the CPU Reservation to 500MHz
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 19
An organization’s datastores are configured in a fully automated Storage Distributed Resource Scheduler (SDRS) cluster. The vSphere administrator determines that virtual machines are being migrated between datastores even though the
datastores look evenly balanced. On further investigation, the administrator determines that the datastore’s utilization differ by 2%.
Which Storage DRS setting should the administrator change to prevent the virtual machines from migrating prematurely?
A. Edit the Storage DRS cluster settings to increase the percentage of the Space Utilization Difference threshold
B. Edit the Storage DRS cluster settings to increase the percentage of the I/O imbalance threshold
C. Edit the Storage DRS cluster settings to increase the size of the Space Utilization Difference threshold
D. Edit the Storage DRS cluster settings to increase the size of the I/O imbalance threshold
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 20
A vSphere administrator enables Fault Tolerance on a powered off virtual machine that has the following configuration:
The virtual machine’s single thin provisioned virtual disk is sized at 100GB.
The datastore that houses the virtual machine has 120GB of free space.
After Fault Tolerance has been configured, another administrator attempts to use Enhanced vMotion to move a 30GB virtual machine file into the same datastore and receives an error.
What condition could cause this behavior?
A. Fault Tolerance inflated the virtual machine’s virtual disk file.
B. Fault Tolerance created a temporary logging file on the same datastore.
C. Fault Tolerance created a secondary copy of the virtual machine’s virtual disk file.
D. The Fault Tolerance logging file ran out of disk space.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 21
While testing a Fault Tolerance setup on a virtual machine, a system administrator notices that the DRS automation level of the virtual machine has been automatically set to Disabled.
The administrator needs to enable DRS to migrate the Fault Tolerance virtual machine to balance the cluster’s CPU and memory loads.
What should the administrator do?
A. Enable Enhanced vMotion Compatibility (EVC) in the vSphere cluster.
B. Move the virtual machine to a VMFS 5 datastore built on shared storage.
C. Manually change the DRS automation level of the virtual machine to Enabled.
D. Move the secondary virtual machine to a host with a Fault Tolerance VMkernel port.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 22
— Exhibit —

— Exhibit —
A vSphere administrator has misconfigured vMotion in such a way thatvMotion migrations are failing.
Based on the information shown, what is the cause of the problem?
A. The vMotion VMkernel ports on the hosts are configured with the same IP address.
B. The labels of the vMotion VMkernel ports are not identical.
C. The vMotion VMkernel ports are not labeled identically.
D. The vMotion VMkernel ports are using the same uplink.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 23
A system administrator detects that a VDP Appliance that has been operational for 6 months has become inconsistent or unstable.
Which action should the administrator take to recover the VDP appliance and what will be the impact on the vSphere environment?
A. Perform a VDP rollback to the most recent validated checkpoint. All backup and configuration changes made after the checkpoint will be lost.
B. Perform a VDP rollback to the most recent validated checkpoint. Configuration changes after the checkpoint will be lost, but backup data will remain intact.
C. Restore a copy of the latest backup of the VDP appliance. All backup data and configuration changes after the backup was made will be lost.
D. Restore a copy of the latest backup of the VDP appliance. All configuration changes after the backup was made will be lost, but backup data will remain intact.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 24
Which two features are different between VDP and VDPA? (Choose two.)
A. Support for guest level backups of SQL and Exchange
B. Ability to perform file level recovery
C. Virtual machines supported per appliance
D. Support for image level backups
Correct Answer: AC

QUESTION 25
An administrator must determine which Update Manager procedures can be performed using the vSphere Web Client, and which must be completed using the Windows vSphere client.
Which two tasks require the use of the Windows vSphere client? (Choose two.)
A. Attach and detach baselines to inventory objects
B. Scan inventory objects for compliance
C. Create a baseline for an inventory object
D. Stage a baseline for remediation
Correct Answer: CD

QUESTION 26
A security audit has revealed that a virtual machine on vSwitch1 is receiving all traffic sent to the virtual switch, violating corporate policy. The vSphere administrator examines the properties for vSwitch1, as shown in the exhibit:
— Exhibit —

— Exhibit —
Which configuration explains why the virtual machine is receiving all traffic sent to vSwitch1?
A. The Production port group has the Promiscuous Mode policy set to Accept.
B. vSwitch1 has the Promiscuous Mode policy set to Reject.
C. The Network Failure Detection policy on the Production port group is set to Link Status plus Beaconing.
D. The Network Failure Detection policy on vSwitch1 is set to Link Status only.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 27
— Exhibit —

— Exhibit —
An administrator receives notice of a large number of ARP table issues. The issues began after a maintenance window 36 hours ago. The issue did not exist prior to the maintenance
window.
Which change was made to the port group that is causing the ARP table issue?
A. Notify Switches was changed to No.
B. Uplink 2 was changed from Standby to Active.
C. Failback was changed to Yes.
D. Network failure detection was changed to Link status only.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 28
— Exhibit —

— Exhibit —
A vSphere administrator attempts to manually vMotion a virtual machine but receives error messages related to the Shared Storage datastore shown in the exhibit.
The administrator uses the vSphere Web Client and locates the datastore settings shown:
Which action should the administrator take to resolve these errors?
A. Reconnect server3 to the vCenter server.
B. Select server3 and click Mount.
C. Remove server3 from the cluster then re-add it.
D. Right-click Not connected and select Connect.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 29
A SAN administrator recently installed a storage encryption switch on the Fibre Channel Fabric. Shortly after the deployment, several new VMFS5 datastores recently created were dismounted. Attempts to manually mount them fail. VMFS5
upgraded datastores are unaffected. All Storage arrays in use support VASA and VAAI.
What is the root cause of this problem?
A. All newly created VMFS5 datastores are tagged ATS_Only. The storage encryption switch blocks the ATS command.
B. All newly created VMFS5 datastores are tagged XCOPY_Only. The storage encryption switch blocks the XCOPY command.
C. All newly created VMFS5 datastores are tagged WRITE_SAME_Only. The storage encryption switch blocks the WRITE_SAME command.
D. All newly created VMFS5 datastores were formatted with 1MB block size. The storage encryption switch does not support this block size.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 30
An administrator is using esxtop to troubleshoot a storage performance issue.
Which parameter should the administrator check to monitor any storage-related vSphere overhead?
A. DAVG
B. KAVG
C. GAVG
D. CMDS
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 31
An error occurs while building a new virtual machine with a thin provisioned virtual disk size of 20GB. The datastore has 35GB of free space. The datastore is overcommitted by 95GB.
What is preventing the virtual machine from being built?
A. The datastore is built on a thin provisioned LUN that has run out of storage array free space.
B. The datastore has reached the maximum overcommitment threshold.
C. The virtual disk used by the virtual machine cannot be thin provisioned on this datastore.
D. The virtual disk used by the virtual machine requires more free space than is available in the datastore.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 32
A vSphere administrator enables and configures a Software iSCSI Initiator, and configures an iSCSI vmkernel portgroup with Port Binding. The SAN administrator creates a few LUNs on an iSCSI server. However, when the vSphere
administrator adds the IP address of the iSCSI server in the Dynamic Discovery list, no iSCSI targets are detected.
What condition would result in this behavior?
A. The iSCSI vmkernel portgroup and the iSCSI server are on different subnets.
B. The iSCSI server IP address should be entered in the Static Discovery instead of Dynamic Discovery list.
C. The network card bound to the iSCSI portgroup is 1Gbps Ethernet instead of 10Gbps.
D. A Software iSCSI Initiator cannot use Port Binding in conjunction with Dynamic Discovery.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 33
A vSphere administrator configures a preferred heartbeat datastore in an HA/DRS cluster configuration. The vCenter Server identifies an alternative preferred datastore.
Why would vCenter Server identify an alternative preferred datastore over the administrator’s preference?
A. The selected datastore contains powered-on virtual machines.
B. The selected datastore is formatted with a 1 MB block size.
C. The selected datastore is an NFS datastore.
D. The selected datastore is not accessible to all of the hosts.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 34
The load is high on a HA/DRS cluster. DPM is enabled. A vSphere administrator determines that hosts are NOT powering on automatically to support the load.
Which configuration would result in this condition?
A. VM-to-VM or VM-to-Host DRS rules have been configured that restrict where some VMs can be moved.
B. DPM has been set to the most Conservative threshold.
C. Some of the virtual machines have been removed from HA consideration by the vSphere administrator.
D. DRS is set to Manual Automation.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 35
A virtual machine fails to migrate during a Storage DRS event.
What could cause this issue?
A. Storage DRS is enabled for the datastore cluster but disabled for the virtual disks.
B. Storage DRS is enabled, but vMotion is disabled for the affected virtual machine.
C. The vMotion network used for Storage DRS is down for a host in the cluster.
D. Storage DRS is attempting to migrate the virtual machine between VMFS and NFS datastores.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 36
The load on a Fully Automated HA/DRS cluster is critically unbalanced.
What condition could cause this issue?
A. DRS is disabled on one or more virtual machines.
B. The migration threshold is set to Moderate.
C. Storage vMotion is not enabled on the cluster.
D. Storage DRS is disabled on the datastore hosting the cluster’s virtual machines.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 37
A vSphere administrator determines that more metrics are available for viewing in the realtime view than are available in the daily view for a virtual machine.
What is the reason for this discrepancy in the number of available metrics?
A. The daily view does not contain all of the metrics that the realtime view does.
B. The default vCenter statistics level is being used.
C. A vCenter statistics level of 4 is being used.
D. The daily view presents a different selection of metrics by default than presented by the realtime view.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 38
A VMware administrator determines that the active memory on an ESXi 5.x host is 20% and the consumed memory is 90%.
How much host memory is available to virtual machines?
A. 80%
B. 10%
C. 70%
D. 20%
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 39
The vSphere administrator needs to check the system health of an ESXi 5.x host using the vSphere Web Client.
Which option in the Monitor tab should the administrator use for the selected host?
A. Performance
B. Hardware Reports
C. Storage Status
D. Issue Log
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 40
A vSphere administrator needs to configure the environment to send a notification to a monitored email address every time a vSphere alarm is triggered.
Which procedure should the administrator use to accomplish the task?
A. Use the vSphere web client to configure the vCenter Server SMTP settings. Edit the alarm action to send a notification email.
B. Use the vSphere web client to configure the vCenter Server SNMP settings. Edit the alarm action to send a notification email.
C. Use the vSphere web client to create a vCenter Server scheduled task that will send a notification email when an alarm is triggered.
D. Use the vSphere web client to create a vCenter Orchestrator workflow that will send a notification email when an alarm is triggered.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 41
Which default alarm definition will send a notification trap if the redundant storage path is lost?
A. Cannot connect to storage
B. Datastore removed from host
C. Host storage status
D. Hardware health changed
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 42
— Exhibit —

— Exhibit —
The vCenter Operations Manager dashboard is showing Health issues associated with the selected virtual machine. There have been no availability or configuration issues with the virtual machine, and the workload badge is still green:
How should an administrator resolve this issue?
A. Select the Anomalies badge to identify the cause of the abnormal behavior, then take appropriate action.
B. Select the Stress badge to identify the cause of the increased stress, then take appropriate action.
C. Select the Risk badge, identify the host at risk, and migrate the VM to a host with more resources.
D. Select the Risk badge to identify how much time is remaining before CPU resources are gone, then assign more resources.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 43
Time Remaining, Capacity Remaining, and Stress are minor badges of which major badge in vCenter Operations Manager?
A. Health
B. Risk
C. Efficiency
D. Workload
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 44
Which minor badge items make up the Efficiency badge score for an ESXi host in vCenter Operations Manager?
A. Workload, Anomalies, Faults
B. Workload, Stress, Density
C. Time Remaining, Capacity Remaining
D. Reclaimable Waste, Density
Correct Answer: D

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Exam Code: 70-410
Total Questions: 503 Q&As

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Best Microsoft MCSA 70-410 Dumps Exam Questions And Answers (Q1-Q15)

QUESTION 1
Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com. All client computer accounts are in an organizational unit (OU) named AllComputers. Client computers run either windows 7 or Windows 8.
You create a Group Policy object (GPO) named GP1.
You link GP1 to the AllComputers OU.
You need to ensure that GP1 applies only to computers that have more than 8 GB of memory.
What should you configure?
A. The Security settings of GP1
B. The Block Inheritance option for AllComputers
C. The Security settings of AllComputers
D. The WMI filter for GP1
Correct Answer: D

Explanation:
Windows Management Instrumentation (WMI) filters allow you to dynamically determine the scope of Group Policy objects (GPOs) based on attributes of the target computer. When a GPO that is linked to a WMI filter is applied on the target computer, the filter is evaluated on the target computer. If the WMI filter evaluates to false, the GPO is not applied (except if the client computer is running Windows Server, in which case the filter is ignored and the GPO is always applied).If the WMI filter evaluates to true, the GPO is applied.

QUESTION 2
Your network contains multiple subnets.
On one of the subnets, you deploy a server named Server1 that runs Windows Server 2012 R2. You install the DNS Server server role on Server1, and then you create a standard primary zone named contoso.com.
You need to ensure that client computers can resolve single-label names to IP addresses.
What should you do first?
A. Create a reverse lookup zone.
B. Convert the contoso.com zone to an Active Directory-integrated zone.
C. Create a GlobalNames zone.
D. Configure dynamic updates for contoso.com.
Correct Answer: C

Explanation:
You should use GlobalNames zone to take advantage of single-label names. This will also ensure that the zone remains valid.

QUESTION 3
Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com. The DNS zone for contoso.com is Active-Directory integrated.
The domain contains 500 client computers. There are an additional 20 computers in a workgroup.
You discover that every client computer on the network can add its record to the contoso.com zone.
You need to ensure that only the client computers in the Active Directory domain can register records in the contoso.com zone.
What should you do?
A. Sign the contoso.com zone by using DNSSEC.
B. Configure the Dynamic updates settings of the contoso.com zone.
C. Configure the Security settings of the contoso.com zone.
D. Move the contoso.com zone to a domain controller that is configured as a DNS server.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 4
Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com. The domain contains a domain controller named Server1 that has the DNS Server server role installed. Server1 hosts a primary zone for contoso.com.
The domain contains a member server named Server2 that is configured to use Server1 as its primary DNS server.
From Server2, you run nslookup.exe as shown in the exhibit. 70-410 dumps (Click the Exhibit button.)
70-410 dumps
You need to ensure that when you run Nslookup, the correct name of the default server is displayed.
What should you do?
A. On Server1, create a reverse lookup zone.
B. On Server1, modify the Security settings of the contoso.com zone.
C. From Advanced TCP/IP Settings on Server1, add contoso.com to the DNS suffix list.
D. From Advanced TCP/IP Settings on Server2, add contoso.com to the DNS suffix list.
Correct Answer: A

Explanation:
Make sure that a reverse lookup zone that is authoritative for the PTR resource record exists. PTR records contain the information that is required for the server to perform reverse name lookups.

QUESTION 5
Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com. The domain contains a DHCP server named Server1 that runs Windows Server 2012 R2.
You create a DHCP scope named Scope1. The scope has a start address of 192.168.1.10, an end address of 192.168.1.50, and a subnet mask of 255.255.255.192.
You need to ensure that Scope1 has a subnet mask of 255.255.255.0.
What should you do first?
A. From the DHCP console, reconcile Scope1.
B. From the DHCP console, delete Scope1.
C. From the DHCP console, modify the Scope Options of Scope1.
D. From Windows PowerShell, run the Set-DhcpServerv4Scope cmdlet.
Correct Answer: B

Explanation:
The only way to change the subnet mask of a scope is to delete and recreate the scope.
Set-DhcpServerv4Scope does not include a parameter for the subnet mask.

QUESTION 6
Your company has a main office and two branch offices. The offices connect to each other by using a WAN link.
In the main office, you have a server named Server1 that runs Windows Server 2012 R2.
Server1 is configured to use an IPv4 address only.
You need to assign an IPv6 address to Server1. The IP address must be private and routable.
Which IPv6 address should you assign to Server1?
A. 2001:ab32:145c::32cc:401b
B. ff00:3rff:65df:145c:dca8::82a4
C. fd00:ab32:14:ad88:ac:58:abc2:4
D. fe80:ab32:145c::32cc:401b
Correct Answer: C

Explanation:
Unique local addresses
Unique local addresses are IPv6 addresses that are private to an organization in the same way that private addresses–such as 10.x.x.x, 192.168.x.x, or 172.16.0.0 – 172.31.255.255–can be used on an IPv4 network.
Unique local addresses, therefore, are not routable on the IPv6 Internet in the same way that an address like 10.20.100.55 is not routable on the IPv4 Internet.
A unique local address is always structured as follows:
The first 8 bits are always 11111101 in binary format. This means that a unique local address always begins with FD and has a prefix identifier of FD00::/8.

QUESTION 7
Your network contains an Active Directory domain named adatum.com. The domain contains several thousand member servers that run Windows Server 2012 R2.All of the computer accounts for the member servers are in an organizational unit (OU) named ServersAccounts.
Servers are restarted only occasionally.
You need to identify which servers were restarted during the last two days.
What should you do?
A. Run Get-ADComputer and specify the SearchScope parameter.
B. Run dsquery computer and specify the -stalepwd parameter.
C. Run dsquery server and specify the -o parameter.
D. Run Get-ADComputer and specify the lastLogon property.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 8
Your network contains an Active Directory forest named contoso.com.
The forest contains two domains named contoso.com and child.contoso.com and two sites named Site1 and Site2. The domains and the sites are configured as shown in following table.
70-410 dumps
When the link between Site1 and Site2 fails, users fail to log on to Site2.
You need to identify what prevents the users in Site2 from logging on to the child.contoso.com domain.
What should you identify?
A. The placement of the global catalog server
B. The placement of the infrastructure master
C. The placement of the domain naming master
D. The placement of the PDC emulator
Correct Answer: D

Explanation:
The exhibit shows that Site2 does not have a PDC emulator. This is important because of the close interaction between the RID operations master role and the PDC emulator role
The PDC emulator processes password changes from earlier-version clients and other domain controllers on a best-effort basis; handles password authentication requests involving passwords that have recently changed and not yet been replicated throughout the domain; and, by default, synchronizes time. If this domain controller cannot connect to the PDC emulator, this domain controller cannot process authentication requests, it may not be able to synchronize time, and password updates cannot be replicated to it.

QUESTION 9
You have a server named Server1 that runs Windows Server 2012 R2.
You plan to use Windows PowerShell Desired State Configuration (DSC) to confirm that the Application Identity service is running on all file servers.
You define the following configuration in the Windows PowerShell Integrated Scripting Environment (ISE):
70-410 dumps
You need to use DSC to configure Server1 as defined in the configuration.
What should you run first?
A. Service1
B. Configuration1
C. Start DscConfiguration
D. Test-DscConfigu ration
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 10
You have a server named Server1 that runs Windows Server 2012 R2.Server1 has the Hyper-V server role installed.
The disks on Server1 are configured as shown in the exhibit.70-410 dumps (Click the Exhibit button.)
70-410 dumps
You create a virtual machine on Server1.
You need to ensure that you can configure a pass-through disk for the virtual machine.
What should you do?
A. Convert Disk 1 to a GPT disk.
B. Delete partition E.
C. Convert Disk 1 to a dynamic disk.
D. Take Disk 1 offline.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 11
Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com. The domain contains a server named Server1.Server1 runs Windows Server 2012 R2.
You need to create a 3-TB virtual hard disk (VHD) on Server1.
Which tool should you use?
A. Share and Storage Management
B. New-StoragePool
C. New-VirtualDisk
D. Diskpart
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 12
Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com. The domain contains a member server named Server 1.Server1 runs Windows Server 2012 R2 and has the DHCP Server server role installed.
You create two IPv4 scopes on Server1. The scopes are configured as shown in the following table.
70-410 dumps
The DHCP clients in Subnet1 can connect to the client computers in Subnet2 by using an IP address or a FQDN.
You discover that the DHCP clients in Subnet2 can connect to client computers in Subnet1 by using an IP address only.
You need to ensure that the DHCP clients in both subnets can connect to any other DHCP client by using a FQDN.
What should you add?
A. The 015 DNS Domain Name option to Subnet1
B. The 015 DNS Domain Name option to Subnet2
C. The 006 DNS Servers option to Subnet2
D. The 006 DNS Servers option to Subnet1
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 13
You have a server named dc2.contoso.com that runs Windows Server 2012 R2 and has the DNS Server server role installed.
You open DNS Manager as shown in the exhibit.(Click the Exhibit button.)
70-410 dumps
You need to view the DNS server cache from DNS Manager.
What should you do first?
A. From the View menu, click Filter…
B. From the Action menu, click Configure a DNS Server…
C. From the Action menu, click Properties.
D. From the View menu, click Advanced.
Correct Answer: D

Explanation:
Navigating the DNS Manager console you should go to the View menu and click the Advanced tab. That will yield the DNS server cache.

QUESTION 14
Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com. The domain contains a server named Server1.Server1 runs Windows Server 2012 R2.
You create a group Managed Service Account named gservice1.
You need to configure a service named Service1 to run as the gservice1 account.
How should you configure Service1?
A. From the Services console, configure the General settings.
B. From Windows PowerShell, run Set-Service and specify the -StartupType parameter.
C. From a command prompt, run sc.exe and specify the config parameter.
D. From a command prompt, run sc.exe and specify the privs parameter.
Correct Answer: C

Explanation:
Executing the ss.exe command with the config parameter will modify service configuration.

QUESTION 15
You plan to deploy a file server to a temporary location.
The temporary location experiences intermittent power failures. The file server will contain a dedicated volume for shared folders.
You need to create a volume for the shared folders. The solution must minimize the likelihood of file corruption if a power failure occurs.
Which file system should you use?
A. NFS
B. FAT32
C. ReFS
D. NTFS
Correct Answer: C

Explanation:
The ReFS file system allows for resiliency against corruptions with the option to salvage amongst many other key features like Metadata integrity with checksums, Integrity streams with optional user data integrity, and shared storage pools across machines for additional failure tolerance and load balancing, etc.

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Exam Name: CCIE Data Center Written Exam
Exam Code: 400-151
Total Questions: 491 Q&As

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Drag and drop the feature form the left onto the correct benefits on the right.
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An admin is updating an existing Cisco UCS environment to accommodate a new storage array that will be directly attached to the Cisco UCS.
Unmanaged servers external to the Cisco UCS fabric interconnects will also access the new array existing Cisco UCS service profiles will be used to access the new storage array.
Drag and drop the appropriate steps from left into the correct order on the right to migrate the Cisco UCS to support the new storage array.
Select and Place:
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Correct Answer:
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QUESTION 9
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Drag and drop feature on the left onto the appropriate business benefits on the right
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Drag and drop the actions in the left column into the right column in the order in which you would perform those actions in a step-by-step in-service software upgrade process 400-151 dumps
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QUESTION 13
Drag and drop two configurations that should fail without data loss from the left column into the 2 Devices Lost column on the right.
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Drag and drop the correct description on the left onto the protocols and features on the right. Not all options will be used.
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Drag and drop sequence of the steps on left for ISSU software of dual supervisor switches to achieve a non-disruptive upgrade on the right.
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Exam Name: Interconnecting Cisco Networking Devices Part 2 (ICND2 v3.0)
Exam Code: 200-105
Total Questions: 310 Q&As

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Latest Cisco ICND2 200-105 Dumps Exam Questions And Answers (Q1-Q20)

QUESTION 1
Which command can be used from a router to verify the Layer 3 path to a host?
A. tracert address
B. traceroute address
C. telnet address
D. ssh address
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 2
A network administrator has configured access list 173 to prevent Telnet and ICMP traffic from reaching a server with the address of 192.168.13.26. Which commands can the administrator issue to verify that the access list is working properly? (Choose three.)
A. Router# ping 192.168.13.26
B. Router# debug access-list 173
C. Router# show open ports 192.168.13.26
D. Router# show access-lists
E. Router# show ip interface
Correct Answer: ADE

QUESTION 3
When troubleshooting Ethernet connectivity issues, how can you verify that an IP address is known to a router?
A. Check whether the IP address is in the routing table
B. Check whether an ACL is blocking the IP address
C. Check whether the IP address is in the CAM table
D. Check whether the IP address is in the ARP table
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 4
Refer to the exhibit.
200-105 dumps
Assuming that the entire network topology is shown, what is the operational status of the interfaces of R2 as indicated by the command output shown?
A. One interface has a problem.
B. Two interfaces have problems.
C. The interfaces are functioning correctly.
D. The operational status of the interfaces cannot be determined from the output shown.
Correct Answer: C

Explanation:
R2 has setup with two interface s0/1 and fa0/0 and both are interfaces configured with IP address and up. “show ip interface brief” showing the status of R2 interfaces.

QUESTION 5
Which two steps must you perform on each device that is configured for IPv4 routing before you implement OSPFv3? 200-105 dumps (Choose two)
A. configure an autonomous system number
B. configure a loopback interface
C. configure a router ID
D. Enable IPv6 on an interface
E. Enable IPv6 unicast routing
Correct Answer: CE

QUESTION 6
200-105 dumps
200-105 dumps
Which connection uses the default encapsulation for serial interfaces on Cisco routers?
A. The serial connection to the NorthCoast branch office.
B. The serial connection to the North branch office.
C. The serial connection to the Southlands branch office.
D. The serial connection to the Multinational Core.
Correct Answer: B

Explanation:
Cisco default encapsulation is HDLC which is by default enabled on all cisco router. If we want to enable other encapsulation protocol (PPP,X.25 etc) we need to define in interface setting. But here except s1/1 all interface defined by other encapsulation protocol so we will assume default encapsulation running on s1/1 interface and s1/1 interface connected with North

QUESTION 7
Which statement about access lists that are applied to an interface is true?
A. You can place as many access lists as you want on any interface.
B. You can apply only one access list on any interface.
C. You can configure one access list, per direction, per Layer 3 protocol.
D. You can apply multiple access lists with the same protocol or in different directions.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 8
Which two statements about MPLS are true ?
A. it encapsulates all traffic in an ipv4 header
B. it provides automatic authentication
C. it uses labels to separate and forward customer traffic
D. it can carry multiple protocols, including ipv4 and ipv6
E. it tags customer traffic using 802.1q
Correct Answer: CD

QUESTION 9
Which technology can provide security when connection multiple sites across the internet?
A. EBGP
B. DMVPN
C. Site-to-site vpn
D. MPLS
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 10
Which protocol is a Cisco proprietary implementation of STP?
A. CST
B. RSTP
C. MSTP
D. PVST+
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 11
How can you manually configure a switch so that it is selected as the root Switch?
A. increase the priority number
B. lower the port priority number
C. lower the priority number
D. increase the port priority number
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 12
Which three describe the reasons large OSPF networks use a hierarchical design? (Choose Three)
A. to speed up convergence
B. to reduce routing overhead
C. to lower costs by replacing routers with distribution layer switches
D. to decrease latency by increasing bandwidth
E. to confine network instability to single areas of the network
F. to reduce the complexity of router configuration
Correct Answer: ABE

QUESTION 13
Which function does traffic shaping perform?
A. it buffers traffic without queuing it
B. it queues traffic without buffering it
C. it drops packets to control the output rate
D. it buffers and queues excess packets
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 14
Which of the port is not part of STP protocol?
A. Listening
B. Learning
C. Forwarding
D. Discarding
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 15
Which functionality does an SVI provide?
A. OSI Layer 2 connectivity to switches
B. remote switch administration
C. traffic routing for VLANs
D. OSI Layer 3 connectivity to switches
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 16
If two OSPF neighbors have formed complete adjacency and are exchanging link-state advertisements, which state have they reached?
A. Exstart
B. 2-Way
C. FULL
D. Exchange
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 17
Which one of these is a valid HSRP Virtual Mac Address? 200-105 dumps
A. 0000.0C07.AC15
B. 0000.5E00.01A3
C. 0007.B400.AE01
D. 0007.5E00.B301
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 18
Assuming the default switch configuration which vlan range can be added modified and removed on a cisco switch?
A. 2 through 1001
B. 1 through 1001
C. 1 through 1002
D. 2 through 1005
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 19
Which command do use we to see SNMP version?
A. show snmp pending
B. show snmp enginelD
C. snmp-server something
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 20
While troubleshooting a connection problem on a computer,you determined that the computer can ping a specific web server but it cannot connect to TCP port 80 on that server.
Which reason for the problem is most likely ture?
A. A VLAN number is incorrect
B. An ARP table entry is missing
C. A route is missing
D. An ACL is blocking the TCP port
Correct Answer: D

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Vendor: Microsoft
Certifications: MCSA Windows Server 2016
Exam Name: Installation, Storage, and Compute with Windows Server 2016
Exam Code: 70-740
Total Questions: 236 Q&As

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Useful Microsoft MCSA Windows Server 2016 70-740 Dumps Exam Questions And Answers (Q1-Q20)

QUESTION 1
In this section, you’ll see one or more sets of questions with the same scenario and problem Each question presents a unique solution to the problem, and you must determine whether the solution meets the stated goals. Any of the solutions might solve the problem. It is also possible that none of the solutions solve the problem.
Once you answer a question in this section, you will NOT be able to return to it. As a result, these questions will not appear in the review screen
Note: This question is part of a series of questions that present the same scenario. Each question in the series contains a unique solution. Determine whether the solution meets the stated goals.
Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com. The domain contains a DNS server named Server1. All client computers run Windows 10.
On Server1, you have the following zone configuration
70-740 dumps
You need to prevent Server1 from resolving queries from DNS clients located on Subnet4 Server1 must resolve queries from all other DNS clients
Solution From a Group Policy object (GPO) in tne domain, you modify the Network List Manager Policies
Does this meet the goal?
A. Yes
B. No
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 2
You have a Hyper-V host named Server1 that runs Windows Server 2016. Server1 hosts a virtual machine.
You need to provide VM1 with direct access to a graphics processing unit (GPU) on Server1.
What should you do first?
A. Disable the display adapter device on Server1.
B. In the settings of VM1, add a RemoteFX 3D Video Adapter.
C. On VM1, install the Quality Windows Audio Video Experience (qWave) feature.
D. Dismount the display adapter on Server1.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 3
After you answer a question in this section, you will NOT be able to return to it. As a result, these questions will not appear in the review screen.
You have a server named Server1 that runs Windows Server 2016.
You plan to use Windows Server Backup to back up all of the data on Server1. You create a new volume on Server1.
You need to ensure that the new volume can be used as a backup target. The backup target must support incremental backups.
Solution: You mount the volume to C:\Backup, and you format the volume by using NTFS.
Does this meet the goal?
A. Yes
B. No
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 4
You have a server named Server1 that runs Windows Server 2016 You install the Docker daemon on Server! You need to configure the Docker daemon to accept connections only on TCP port 64500. What should you do?
A. Run theNew-NetFirewallRulecmdlet
B. Run theSet-ServiceWindows PowerShell cmdlet.
C. Edit the daemon.json file.
D. Edit the configuration json file
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 5
You have a Nano Server named Nano1. 70-740 dumps
You deploy several containers to Nano1 that use an image named Image1.
You need to deploy a new container to Nano1 that uses Image1.
What should you run?
A. the Install-NanoServerPackage cmdlet
B. theInstall-WindowsFeaturecmdlet
C. the docker load command
D. the docker run command
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 6
Note: This question is part of a series of questions that use the same similar answer choices. An answer choice may be correct for more than one question in the series. Each question is independent of the other questions in this series.
Information and details provided in a question apply only to that question.
You have a Hyper-V host named Server1 that runs Windows Server 2016. Server1 contains a virtual machine named VM1.
You need to ensure that you can use nested virtualization on VM1.
What should you run on Server1?
A. the Mount-VHD cmdlet
B. the Diskpart command
C. the Set-VHD cmdlet
D. the Set-VM cmdlet
E. the Set-VMHost cmdlet
F. the Set-VMProcessor cmdlet
G. the Install-WindowsFeature cmdlet
H. the Optimize-VHD cmdlet
Correct Answer: F

QUESTION 7
You have a Windows Server 2016 Hyper-V failover cluster that contains two nodes named Node1 and Node2
On Node1, you create a virtual machine named VM01 by using Hyper-V Manage.
You need to configure VM01 to move to Node2 automatically if Node1 becomes unavailable
What should you do?
A. From Failover Cluster manager, run the configure Role actions.
B. From Hyper-V Manager, click VM01 and click Enable Replication.
C. From Hyper-V Manager Click Node 1 and the modify the hyper-V settings.
D. From Windows Powershell, run the Enable-VMReplication cmdlet.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 8
You have a server named Server1 that runs Windows Server 2016. Server! is a Hyper-V host that hosts a virtual machine named VM1. Server1 has three network adapter cards That connect to a virtual switch named vSwitch1. You configure NIC Teaming on VM1 as shown in the exhibit.
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You need to ensure that VM1 will retain access to the network if a physical adapter card fails on Server1. What should you do?
A. From Hyper-V Manager on Server1, modify the settings of VM1.
B. From Windows PowerShell on Server1, run theSet-VmSwitchcmdlet.
C. From the properties of the NIC team on VM1, add the adapter named Ethernet to the NIC team.
D. From the properties of the NIC team on VM1. change the load balancing of the NIC team.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 9
You need to implement network virtualization.
On which object should you configure the virtual subnet ID?
A. Virtual switch
B. Hyper-V server
C. VM
D. Virtual network adapter
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 10
You have a Hyper-V host named Server1 that runs Windows Server 2016. Server1 hosts a virtual machine named VM1 that runs Windows Server 2016.
You install the Hyper-V server role on VM1.
You need to ensure that the virtual machines hosted on VM1 can communicate with the virtual machines hosted on Server1.
What should you do?
A. On Server1, run the Set-VmNetworkAdapterIsolation cmdlet and specify the–MultiTenantStack Off parameter.
B. On VM1, run the Set-VMNetworkAdapter cmdlet and specify the –MacAddressSpoofing Off parameter.
C. On VM1, run the Set-VmNetworkAdapterIsolation cmdlet and specify the–MultiTenantStack On parameter.
D. On Server1, run the Set-VMNetworkAdapter cmdlet and specify the–MacAddressSpoofing On parameter.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 11
Note: This question is part of a series of questions that use the same or similar answer choices. An answer choice may be correct for more than one question in the series. Each question is independent of the other questions in this series.
Information and details provided in a question apply only to that question.
You have two servers named Server1 and Server2 that run Windows Server 2016. Server1 and Server2 have the Hyper-V server role installed.
An iSCSI SAN connects to the network.
You create a LUN on the SAN and configure both servers to connect to the iSCSI target.
You create a failover cluster and add Server1 and Server2 to the cluster. You connect both servers to the iSCSI target and format the shared storage.
You need to add the shared storage to the cluster. The solution must ensure that virtual machines running on both nodes can access the shared storage simultaneously.
Which tool should you use?
A. the clussvc.exe command
B. the cluster.exe command
C. the Computer Management snap-in
D. the configurehyperv.exe command
E. the Disk Management snap-in
F. the Failover Cluster Manager snap-in
G. the Hyper-V Manager snap-in
H. the Server Manager app
Correct Answer: F

QUESTION 12
You have a server named Server1 that runs Windows Server 2016.
On Server1, you use the Basic template to create a new Data Collector Set named CollectorSet1.
You need to configure CollectorSet1 to generate performance alerts.
What should you do before you start CollectorSet1?
A. Modify the performance counter data collector of CollectorSet1.
B. Add a new data collector to CollectorSet1.
C. Modify the configuration data collector of CollectorSet1.
D. Add a new task to CollectorSet1.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 13
You have a Hyper-V failover cluster that contains three nodes. Virtual machines are distributed evenly across the cluster nodes.
You need to ensure that if a node loses connectivity from the other nodes, the virtual machines on the node will be transitioned to one of the remaining nodes after one minute.
Which settings should you modify?
A. QuarantineDuration and QuarantineThreshold
B. SameSubnetDelay and CrossSubnetDelay
C. QuorumArbitrationTimeMax and RequestReplyTimeout
D. ResiliencyPeriod and ResiliencyLevel
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 14
You have a Hyper-V host that runs Windows Server 2016. The host contains a virtual machine named VM1. VM1 has resource metering enabled. You need to use resource metering to track the amount of network traffic that VM1 sends to the 10.0.0.0/8 network.
Which cmdlet should you run?
A. Add-VMNetworkAdapteiAd
B. Set-VMNetworkAdapter
C. New-VMResourcePool
D. Set-VMNetworkAdapterRoutingDomamMapping
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 15
You have two servers named Server1 and Server2. A firewall exists between Server1 and Server2.
Both servers run Windows Server Update Services (WSUS). Server1 downloads updates from Microsoft update.
Server2 must synchronize updates from Server1. 70-740 dumps
Which port should to open on the firewall?
A. 80
B. 443
C. 3389
D. 8530
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 16
Virtual Network Manager (available from the Hyper-V Manager snap-in) offers three types of virtual networks that you can use to define various networking topologies for virtual machines and the virtualization server.
Which type of virtual network is isolated from all external network traffic on the virtualization server, as well any network traffic between the management operating system and the external network.
A. Private virtual network
B. Internal virtual network
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 17
You have two Hyper-V hosts named Server1 and Server2 that run Windows Server 2016. Server1 and Server2 are connected to the same network.
On Server1 and Server2, you create an external network switch named Switch1.
You have the virtual machines shown in the following table.
70-740 dumps
All three virtual machines are connected to Switch1.
You need to prevent applications in VM3 from being able to capture network traffic from VM1 or VM2. The solution must ensure that VM1 retains network connectivity.
What should you do?
A. On Server2, configure the VLAN ID setting of Switch1.
B. On Server2, create an external switch and connect VM3 to the switch.
C. Modify the subnet mask of VM1 and VM2.
D. Configure network virtualization for VM1 and VM2.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 18
You have a Hyper-V host that runs Windows Server 2016.
You need to identify the amount of processor resources consumed by Hyper-V and virtual machines.
Which counter should you use from Performance Monitor?
A. \Hyper-V Hypervisor\Logical Processor
B. \Hyper-V Hypervisor Root Virtual Processor(_Total)\% Guest Run Time
C. \Hyper-V Hypervisor Virtual Processor(_Total)\% Hypervisor Run Time
D. \Hyper-V Hypervisor Virtual Processor(_Total)\% Total Run Time
E. \Hyper-V Hypervisor Logical Processor(_Total)\% Total Run Time
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 19
You have a Nano Server that runs Windows Server 2016. The Nano Server runs on a physical machine.
You have not Installed any packages on the server.
You attach a new disk to the server, and you initialize the disk as a GPT disk.
You need to create an RefS-formatted volume on the new disk.
What should you do first?
A. From the physical server, log on to the Nano Server Recovery Console.
B. Install the Microsoft-Nano’Server-Host-Package package.
C. Run me Format-Vokime cmdlet and specify the -FileSystem switch.
D. Install the Microsoft NanoServef-Storage-Package package.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 20
You have two servers named Server1 and Server2 that run Windows Server 2016.
You plan to implement Storage Replica to replicate the contents of volumes on Server1 to Server2.
You need to ensure that the replication traffic between the servers is limited to a maximum of 100 Mbps.
Which cmdlet should you run?
A. Set-NetUDPSetting
B. New-StorageQosPolicy
C. Set-SmbBandwidthLimit
D. Set-NetTCPSetting
Correct Answer: C

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Vendor: Cisco
Certifications: CCNA Wireless
Exam Name: Implementing Cisco Wireless Network Fundamentals
Exam Code: 200-355
Total Questions: 504 Q&As

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Hot Cisco CCNA Wireless 200-355 Dumps Exam Questions And Answers (Q1-Q30)

QUESTION 1
What is max power for an AP for all regulatory bodies?
A. 10
B. 8
C. 1
D. X
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 2
How Cisco spectrum analyzer analyse the scanned data?
A. Store scanned data during wifi scan and analyze later.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 3
What is the deployment that requires least amount of hardware installed on the site?
A. Cloud
B. Converged
C. Centralized
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 4
What command can be used on the WLC to show the logs (or something) for an AP with the name Cisco_AP?
A. show logging
B. show ap eventlog Cisco_AP
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 5
What is the command used to debug an AP that is not able to join the WLC?
A. debug capwap events enable (on the WLC)
B. debug capwap events enable (on the AP)
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 6
What are the channels you need to avoid not to have interference with DFS channels? (Choose 3)
A. 52
B. 136
C. 124
D. 161
Correct Answer: BCD

QUESTION 7
What is required from the deployment when using voice or video applications? (Choose 3)
A. RSSI cell edge of -25
B. RSSI cell edge of -16
C. SNR of 25
D. Cell Overlap of 20%
E. RSSI -67
Correct Answer: CDE

QUESTION 8
What are the sources of interference you will find when conducting a site survery before deployment? 200-355 dumps (Choose 3)
A. Bluetooth Headset
B. Microwave Ovens
C. Analog Wireless Camera
D. AdHoc Wireless Camera
E. AdHoc Hotspot
Correct Answer: ABC

QUESTION 9
What are reqs for VoWLAN?
A. RSSI -67
B. SNR 25
C. 20% overlapping cells
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 10
What is SNR needed for 54 Mbps?
A. SNR 25
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 11
What is max level in Cisco WLC TPC for all regulatory domain?
A. 1
B. 8
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 12
Engineer needs an LAP to support few WLANs with different DHCP servers for different SSIDs, how to fulfill this requirement?
A. configuring dynamic VLAN interfacesto SSIDs in AP group.
B. configure DHCP in AP settings advanced page
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 13
Which wireless survey you do considering the “infrastructure” in the building?
A. Passive
B. Active
C. Planning
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 14
What are the minimum requirements to operate cisco 7925 wireless phone? (Choose 3)
A. RSSI -67
B. SNR 25
C. 20% cell overlapping
Correct Answer: ABC

QUESTION 15
Which WLC menu you use the check the assigned power level of an AP?
A. Wireless
B. Management
C. Controller
D. Monitor.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 16
How much wireless cell overlapping is required for 5GHz voice and data roaming?
A. 5%
B. 10%
C. 15%
D. 20%
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 17
Which CLI command you use in WLC to update the running IOS?
A. TFTP
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 18
What is the maximum power level for AP in any regularity domain?
A. 1
B. 5
C. 8
D. 10
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 19
How much SNR needed to reach 54Mbps in 802.11g network?
A. 25
B. 10
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 20
What three authentication methods are generally used in enterprise wireless networks? (Choose three.)
A. AES
B. CCKM
C. EAP-FAST
D. EAP-TLS
E. PEAP
F. WEP
Correct Answer: CDE

QUESTION 21
Which CLI command shows the controller configuration in a way that is similar to the way that it is displayed on Cisco IOS routers?
A. show config
B. show run config
C. show run-config
D. show running config
E. show running-config
Correct Answer: E

QUESTION 22
Which four parameters need to be configured for local EAP-FAST on the controller? (Choose four.)
A. Authority ID
B. Authority ID Information
C. Client Key
D. PAC
E. Server Key
F. TTL for PAC
G. Monitor Key
H. NTP Source
Correct Answer: ABEF

QUESTION 23
Which CLI command would you use on the Cisco WLC to display detailed information for a client associated with a lightweight access point?
A. debug dot11
B. show arp switch
C. show client detailed
D. show exclusionlist
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 24
Which statement applies to TKIP? 200-355 dumps
A. is part of the initial key exchange used to derive a pairwise temporal key
B. is used to encrypt a WEP authenticated session
C. is used to encrypt the data for WPA sessions
D. is used to secure the initial authentication credential exchange between client and authenticator
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 25
What does the current European Telecommunications Standards Institute rule state is the 2.4-GHz maximum transmitter output power for point-to-point installations?
A. 16 dBm
B. 17 dBm
C. 20 dBm
D. 30 dBm
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 26
How do the features that are available on the Cisco WCS for Linux version differ from those of the Cisco WCS for Windows version?
A. Assuming that there are no differences in hardware, a Cisco WCS for Linux can support up to 750 wireless LAN controllers. A Cisco WCS for Windows can support up to 250 wireless LAN controllers.
B. Cisco WCS for Windows includes support for Cisco Spectrum Expert clients. Cisco WCS for Linux does not support Cisco Spectrum Expert clients.
C. Cisco WCS for Linux is required for deployments.
D. There are no differences in features between the Linux and Windows versions of Cisco WCS.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 27
Which modulation technique allows you to achieve a data rate of 54Mb/s in the 2.4GHz-band?
A. Complimentary Code Keying
B. Differential Binary Phase Shift Keying
C. Differential Quadrature Phase Shift Keying
D. Quadrature Amplitude Modulation
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 28
What is the result when client exclusion is enabled with a timeout value of zero?
A. Clients are excluded indefinitely.
B. Clients are never excluded.
C. Client exclusion is disabled.
D. Clients must be explicitly included by specifying the MAC address.
E. Exclusion and inclusion is determined by access list.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 29
An indoor 1240 AP is booting and has obtained an IP address using DHCP. The AP has confirmed prior controller IP addresses from a previously joined mobility group stored in NVRAM.
What is the next step the AP performs?
A. DHCP option 43.
B. DNS resolution of CISCO-LWAPP-CONTROLLER.localdomain.
C. Layer 2 LWAPP discovery broadcast.
D. Layer 3 LWAPP discovery broadcast.
E. Ping each Cisco WLC to verify its current status.
F. Select a Cisco WLC based on its position in the configured join selection sequence.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 30
Which AP to Wireless LAN Controller discovery process requires a previous association of the AP with a Cisco WLC?
A. AP priming
B. defining a master controller
C. DHCP Option 6
D. DHCP Option 43
Correct Answer: A

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Vendor: Cisco
Certifications: CCNA Data Center
Exam Name: Introducing Cisco Data Center Technologies
Exam Code: 640-916
Total Questions: 182 Q&As

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Cisco CCNA Data Center 640-916 Dumps Exam Questions And Answers (Q1-Q20)

QUESTION 1
Which commands issued on the Cisco Nexus 1000V VSM push the port profile named VMdata to the VMware vCenter server?
A. N1000v-VSM(config)# port-profile VMdataN1000v-VSM(config-port-prof)# no shutdown
B. N1000v-VSM(config)# port-profile VMdataN1000v-VSM(config-port-prof)# push profile
C. N1000v-VSM(config)# port-profile VMdataN1000v-VSM(config-port-prof)# state enabled
D. N1000v-VSM(config)# port-profile VMdataN1000v-VSM(config-port-prof)# update profile
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 2
What is the maximum number of Cisco ACE GSS 4400 Series Appliances that can be part of a high-availability mesh?
A. 16
B. 8
C. 4
D. 3
E. 12
F. 14
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 3
An administrator has installed two Cisco VIC adapters. The administrator has also configured four virtual network interface cards and two virtual host bus adapters. Using this configuration, how many PCI bus addresses will be presented to the server operating system?
A. 2
B. 4
C. 6
D. 8
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 4
Which three options are characteristics of a data center access layer switch? (Choose three.)
A. host connectivity
B. firewall connectivity
C. QoS marking
D. spanning-tree edge ports
E. high-speed packet switching
Correct Answer: ACD

QUESTION 5
Which three are features of Cisco OTV? (Choose three.)
A. control plane-based MAC learning
B. dynamic encapsulation
C. MAC address learning based on flooding
D. pseudo wires and tunnels
E. complex dual-homing
F. native automated multihoming
Correct Answer: ABF

QUESTION 6
An engineer has been asked to configure the Nexus 1000v for a ESXi Cluster. 640-916 dumps What component of the Nexus 1000v needs to be installed on the hosts?
A. VSG
B. VEM
C. vShield
D. DVS
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 7
Scenario:
Customer is configuring FCoE and NPV in their Data Center on Cisco Nexus 5000 Series Switches. Please go through the Topology and Exhibit 1 through 4 to answer the following questions.
Topology:
640-916 dumps
640-916 dumps
What can you tell about server ports and their external interfaces from the exhibits?
A. vfc3/1 is not correctly connected to server external interface fc2/1.
B. vfc3/1 is not correctly connected to server external interface fc2/1 and flogi are unsuccessful.
C. Server interface vfc3/1 is assigned to NP uplinks fc2/1,fc2/2, fc2/3, andfc2/4. There are 4 successful flogi.
D. Server interface vfc3/1 is assigned to NP uplinks fc2/1, fc2/2, fc2/3, and fc2/4. There are 4 flogi are in initialization state.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 8
What option automatically performs an inventory and deep discovery of any subsequently attached equipment, without requiring manual intervention?
A. UCS Manager
B. UCS Server
C. CDP Manager
D. Enterprise Manager
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 9
Which command issued on the Cisco Nexus 1000V VSM validates the connection to the VMware vCenter server?
A. N1000v-VSM# show vmware-vim
B. N1000v-VSM# show connections vmware
C. N1000v-VSM# show svs connections
D. N1000v-VSM# show vcenter status
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 10
An administrator connected a new server to a Cisco MDS 9222i on Port FCL/20, but did not capture the world wide node name of the host bus adapter. Which command returns the needed information?
A. show flogi database
B. show fcns database
C. show fcs database
D. show wwn status
E. show interface fc 1/20
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 11
Which SAN port type allows multihop FCoE between two SAN switches?
A. VN
B. VE
C. VF
D. E
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 12
Which is the correct port mapping for a Fibre Channel HBA connected to a Cisco MDS Fibre Channel switch?
A. H_Port to N_Port
B. N_Port to S_Port
C. H_Port to S_Port
D. N_Port to F_Port
E. H_Port to F_Port
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 13
In a large enterprise, which two SAN switches are ideal core switches for providing high availability? (Choose two.)
A. Cisco Nexus 5548
B. Cisco MDS 9710
C. Cisco MDS 9509
D. Cisco Nexus 7028
E. Cisco MDS 9222i
Correct Answer: BC

QUESTION 14
Which three are the three primary methods to configure Cisco UCS B-Series systems? 640-916 dumps (Choose three.)
A. SNMP
B. XML API
C. UCS Manager GUI
D. IPMI
E. UCS Manager CLI
F. CIM-XML
Correct Answer: BCE

QUESTION 15
A network engineer is configuring a pair of 6248 Fabric Interconnects, each with dual 10G uplinks to a parent switch. One design requirement is to ensure a specific server is able to use 10G of throughput to the LAN without contention from other servers within the 5108 chassis. Which technology will accomplish this?
A. LAN Pin Groups
B. Port-Channels
C. System QoS Policy
D. Unified Ports
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 16
Which item best describes the STP requirements for Cisco FabricPath?
A. RPVST must be configured on every Cisco FabricPath VLAN.
B. RPVST must be configured on every Cisco FabricPath Border interface.
C. MST must be configured on every Cisco FabricPath VLAN.
D. MST must be configured on every Cisco FPBI.
E. STP is required only to resolve border link failures.
F. STP is not required on Cisco FabricPath interfaces.
Correct Answer: F

QUESTION 17
Which port type pair is used to connect FCoE switches in multihop FCoE?
A. N to F
B. VF to VN
C. VE to VE
D. TE to TE
E. NL to NF
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 18
Which two switches does Cisco recommend for small and medium-sized organizations to provide a cost-effective solution for the Fibre Channel SAN edge? (Choose two.)
A. Cisco MDS 9250i
B. Cisco MDS 9506
C. Cisco MDS 9148
D. Cisco MDS 9509
Correct Answer: AC

QUESTION 19
Which is a function of the data center access layer?
A. repeater
B. high-speed packet switching
C. access control
D. firewalling and Intrusion Prevention
E. services layer
F. QoS marking
Correct Answer: F

QUESTION 20
On the Cisco Nexus 5000, which three commands help verify network connectivity? (Choose three.)
A. ping
B. show interface brief
C. show otv
D. show vdc membership
E. traceroute
Correct Answer: ABE

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