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The Implementing and Operating Cisco Security Core Technologies v1.0 (SCOR 350-701) exam is a 120-minute exam associated with the CCNP Security, Cisco Certified Specialist – Security Core, and CCIE Security certifications. This exam tests a candidate’s knowledge of implementing and operating core security technologies including network security, cloud security, content security, endpoint protection and detection, secure network access, visibility, and enforcement. The course, Implementing and Operating Cisco Security Core Technologies, helps candidates prepare for this exam.

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Latest updates Cisco 350-701 exam practice questions

QUESTION 1
Which connection mechanism does the eSTREAMER service use to communicate?
A. IPsec tunnels with 3DES or AES encryption
B. TCP over SSL only
C. SSH
D. EAP-TLS tunnels
E. TCP with optional SSL encryption
F. IPsec tunnels with 3DES encryption only
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 2
Which benefit does endpoint security provide the overall security posture of an organization?
A. It streamlines the incident response process to automatically perform digital forensics on the endpoint.
B. It allows the organization to mitigate web-based attacks as long as the user is active in the domain.
C. It allows the organization to detect and respond to threats at the edge of the network.
D. It allows the organization to detect and mitigate threats that the perimeter security devices do not detect.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 3
Which VPN technology can support a multivendor environment and secure traffic between sites?
A. SSL VPN
B. GET VPN
C. FlexVPN
D. DMVPN
Correct Answer: C
Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/products/collateral/routers/asr-1000-series-aggregation-services-routers/data_sheet_c78-704277.html

QUESTION 4
Under which two circumstances is a CoA issued? (Choose two.)
A. A new authentication rule was added to the policy on the Policy Service node.
B. An endpoint is deleted on the Identity Service Engine server.
C. A new Identity Source Sequence is created and referenced in the authentication policy.
D. An endpoint is profiled for the first time.
E. A new Identity Service Engine server is added to the deployment with the Administration persona.
Correct Answer: BD
Reference: https://www.cisco.com/en/US/docs/security/ise/1.0/user_guide/ise10_prof_pol.html

QUESTION 5
What is the difference between deceptive phishing and spear phishing?
A. Deceptive phishing is an attacked aimed at a specific user in the organization who holds a C-level role.
B. A spear phishing campaign is aimed at a specific person versus a group of people.
C. Spear phishing is when the attack is aimed at the C-level executives of an organization.
D. Deceptive phishing hijacks and manipulates the DNS server of the victim and redirects the user to a false webpage.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 6
Which two prevention techniques are used to mitigate SQL injection attacks? (Choose two.)
A. Check integer, float, or Boolean string parameters to ensure accurate values.
B. Use prepared statements and parameterized queries.
C. Secure the connection between the web and the app tier.
D. Write SQL code instead of using object-relational mapping libraries.
E. Block SQL code execution in the web application database login.
Correct Answer: AB
Reference: https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/SQL_injection

QUESTION 7
Which exfiltration method does an attacker use to hide and encode data inside DNS requests and queries?
A. DNS tunneling
B. DNSCrypt
C. DNS security
D. DNSSEC
Correct Answer: A
Reference: https://learn-umbrella.cisco.com/cloud-security/dns-tunneling

QUESTION 8
How is Cisco Umbrella configured to log only security events?
A. per policy
B. in the Reporting settings
C. in the Security Settings section
D. per network in the Deployments section
Correct Answer: A
Reference: https://docs.umbrella.com/deployment-umbrella/docs/log-management

QUESTION 9
What is the result of running the crypto isakmp key ciscXXXXXXXX address 172.16.0.0 command?
A. authenticates the IKEv2 peers in the 172.16.0.0/16 range by using the key ciscXXXXXXXX
B. authenticates the IP address of the 172.16.0.0/32 peer by using the key ciscXXXXXXXX
C. authenticates the IKEv1 peers in the 172.16.0.0/16 range by using the key ciscXXXXXXXX
D. secures all the certificates in the IKE exchange by using the key ciscXXXXXXXX
Correct Answer: B
Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/ios-xml/ios/security/a1/sec-a1-cr-book/sec-cr-c4.html#wp6039879000

QUESTION 10
Which cloud service model offers an environment for cloud consumers to develop and deploy applications without
needing to manage or maintain the underlying cloud infrastructure?
A. PaaS
B. XaaS
C. IaaS
D. SaaS
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 11
What is the function of Cisco Cloudlock for data security?
A. data loss prevention
B. controls malicious cloud apps
C. detects anomalies
D. user and entity behavior analytics
Correct Answer: A
Reference: https://umbrella.cisco.com/products/casb

QUESTION 12
How is ICMP used an exfiltration technique?
A. by flooding the destination host with unreachable packets
B. by sending large numbers of ICMP packets with a targeted hosts source IP address using an IP broadcast address
C. by encrypting the payload in an ICMP packet to carry out command and control tasks on a compromised host
D. by overwhelming a targeted host with ICMP echo-request packets
Correct Answer: C

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Microsoft 70-778 Exam Video

Table of Contents:

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[PDF] Free Microsoft 70-778 pdf dumps download from Google Drive: https://drive.google.com/open?id=1iwCw1R55zkcM_CSnLLSfkb_yJXMtelgf

Analyzing and Visualizing Data with Microsoft Power BI:https://www.microsoft.com/en-us/learning/exam-70-778.aspx

Skills measured

This exam measures your ability to accomplish the technical tasks listed below.

  • Consuming and Transforming Data By Using Power BI Desktop
  • Modeling and Visualizing Data
  • Configure Dashboards, Reports, and Apps in the Power BI Service

Who should take this exam?

Candidates for this exam should have a good understanding of how to use Power BI to perform data analysis. Candidates should be proficient in connecting to data sources and performing data transformations,
modeling and visualizing data by using Microsoft Power BI Desktop and configuring dashboards by using the Power BI service. Candidates should also be proficient in implementing direct connectivity to Microsoft SQL Azure and SQL Server Analysis Services (SSAS) and implementing data analysis in Microsoft Excel. Candidates may include BI professionals, data analysts, and other roles responsible for creating reports by using Power BI.

Latest updates Microsoft 70-778 exam practice questions

QUESTION 1
From Power BI Desktop, you publish an app that contains one dashboard and one report.
QandA is enabled on the dashboard.
In QandA, a user types the query count of clients and fails to receive any results. The user then types the query count of
subscribers and received the expected results.
You need to ensure that the user can use both queries to receive the same results.
Which four actions should you perform in sequence? To answer, move the appropriate actions form the list of actions to
the answer area and arrange them in the correct order.
Select and Place:leads4pass 70-778 exam question q1

Correct Answer:

leads4pass 70-778 exam question q1-1

 

QUESTION 2
You create a report in the Power BI service that displays the following visualizations:
A KPI that displays the count of customers
A table that displays the count of customers by country A line chart that displays the count of customers by year
You need to receive an alert when the total number of customers reaches 10,000.
What should you do first?
A. Pin the line chart to a dashboard.
B. Pin the KPI to a dashboard.
C. Embed the report into a Microsoft SharePoint page.
D. Pin the report to a dashboard.
Correct Answer: D


QUESTION 3
Note: This question is part of a series of questions that present the same scenario. Each question in the series contains
a unique solution that might meet the stated goals. Some question sets might have more than one correct solution,
while
others might not have a correct solution.
After you answer a question in this section, you will NOT be able to return to it. As a result, these questions will not
appear in the review screen.
You have a Microsoft Excel workbook that is saved to Microsoft SharePoint Online. The workbook contains several
Power View sheets.
You need to recreate the Power View sheets as reports in the Power BI service.
Solution: From the Power BI service, get the data from SharePoint Online, and then click Import.
Does this meet the goal?
A. Yes
B. No
Correct Answer: A
References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/power-bi/service-excel-workbook-files

QUESTION 4
You have the visualization shown in the following exhibit.leads4pass 70-778 exam question q4

You need to display the values as shown in the following exhibit.

leads4pass 70-778 exam question q4-1

What should you do?
A. Create a calculated column that adds the % symbol to the values.
B. From the Modeling tab, change the Data Type to Percentage.
C. Edit the query of the data source and change the Data Type to Percentage.
D. Create a measure that adds the % symbol to the values,
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 5
Note: This question is part of a series of questions that use the same scenario. For your convenience, the scenario is
repeated in each question. Each question presents a different goal and answer choices, but the text of the scenario is
the
same in each question in this series.
Start of repeated scenario
You have a Microsoft SQL Server database that contains the following tables.leads4pass 70-778 exam question q5

The following columns contain date information:
Date[Month] in the mmyyyy format
Date[Date_ID] in the ddmmyyyy format
Date[Date_name] in the mm/dd/yyyy format
Monthly_returns[Month_ID] in the mmyyyy format
The Order table contains more than one million rows.
The Store table has a relationship to the Monthly_returns table on the StoreJD column. This is the only relationship
between the tables.
You plan to use Power B! Desktop to create an analytics solution for the data.
End of repeated scenario.
You need to create a chart that displays a sum of Order[Order_amount] by month for the Order_ship_date column and
the Order_date column.
How should you model the data?
A. Add a second Date table named Ship_date to the model. Create a many-to-many relationship from Date[Date_ID] to
Order [Order_date] and a many-to-many relationship from Ship_date[DateJD] to Order[Order_ship_date].
B. Add a second Date table named Ship_date to the model. Create a one-to-many relationship from Date[Date_ID] to
Order [Order_date] and a one-to-many relationship from Ship_date[Date_ID] to Order[Order_ship_dateJ.
C. Create a one-to-many relationship from Date[Date_ID] to Order[Order_date] and another relationship from
Date[Date_ID] to Monthly_returns[Date_IDJ.
D. Create a one-to-many relationship from Date[Date_ID] to Order[Order_date] and another relationship from
Date[Date_ID] to Order[Order_ship_date].
Correct Answer: D


QUESTION 6
You have a query that retrieves data from a Microsoft Azure SQL database.
You discover that column named ErrorCode has several values starting with a space character, and a column named
SubStatus contains several non-printable characters.
You need to remove all the leading whitespaces from ErrorCode and all the non-printable characters from SubStatus.
All other data must be retained.
What should you do on each column? To answer, drag the appropriate tasks to the correct columns. Each task may be
used once, more than once, or not at all. You may need to drag the split bar between panes or scroll to view content.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
Hot Area:leads4pass 70-778 exam question q6

Correct Answer:

leads4pass 70-778 exam question q6-1

 

QUESTION 7
In the Power BI service, you create an app workplace that contains several dashboards.
You need to provide a user named [email protected] with the ability to edit and publish dashboards.
What should you do?
A. Modify the members of the app workspace.
B. Configure security for the dataset used by the app.
C. Share the dashboard, and then modify the Access settings of the dashboard.
D. From the app workspace, click Update app, and then configure the Access settings.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 8
You use Power BI Desktop to create a visualization for a Microsoft SQL Server data source.
You need to ensure that you can use R visualization.
Which action should you perform? Each correct answer presents part of the solution.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
A. Download and install Microsoft R Server.
B. Download and install RStudio Server on the computer that has Power BI Desktop installed.
C. Install SQL Server R Services on the server that runs SQL Server.
D. Enable R Scripting on the computer that has Power BI Desktop installed.
E. Download and install Microsoft R on the computer that has Power BI Desktop installed.
Correct Answer: E
References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/power-bi/desktop-r-visuals

QUESTION 9
You are creating reports in Power BI Desktop. The model has the following tables.

leads4pass 70-778 exam question q9

There is a relationship between the tables.
You plan to publish a report to the Power BI service that displays Order_amount by Order_date by Full_name.
You need to ensure that only the columns required for the report appear in Report View. The solution must minimize the
size of the dataset that is published.
How should you configure the columns in Power BI Desktop? To answer, select the appropriate options in the answer
area.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
Hot Area:

leads4pass 70-778 exam question q9-1

Correct Answer:

leads4pass 70-778 exam question q9-2

 

QUESTION 10
You have two tables named CustomerVisits and Date in a Power BI model.
You create a measure to calculate the number of customer visits. You use the measure in the report shown in the
exhibit. (Click the Exhibit.)leads4pass 70-778 exam question q10

You discover that the total number of customer visits was 60,000, and that there were only 5,000 customer visits in
August.
You need to fix the report to display the correct data for each month.
What should you do?
A. Create a relationship between the CustomerVisits table and the Date table.
B. Create a hierarchy in the Date table.
C. Modify the n=measure to use the CALCULATE DAX function.
D. Modify the measure to use the SUM DAX function.
Correct Answer: A
References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/power-bi/desktop-create-and-manage-relationships
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/power-bi/desktop-tutorial-create-measures

QUESTION 11
You plan to use Power BI Desktop optimized for Power BI Report Server to create a report. The report will be published
to Power BI Report Server. You need to ensure that all the visualization in the report can be consumed by users.
Which three types of visualizations should you include in the report? Each correct answer presents part of the solution.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
A. bubble maps
B. custom visuals
C. R visuals
D. breadcrumbs
E. funnel charts
Correct Answer: ABE
References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/power-bi/report-server/install-powerbi-desktop

QUESTION 12
Note: This question is a part of a series of questions that present the same scenario. For your convenience, the
scenario is repeated in each question. Each question presents a different goal and answer choices, but the text of the
scenario is
exactly the same in each question in this series.
Start of repeated scenario
You have a Microsoft SQL Server database that contains the following tables.leads4pass 70-778 exam question q12

The following columns contain data information:
Date[Month] in the mmyyyy format
Date[Date_ID] in the ddmmyyyy format
Date[Date_name] in the mm/dd/yyyy format
Monthly_returns[Month_ID] in the mmyyyy format
The Order table contains more than one million rows.
The Store table has relationship to the Monthly_returns table on the Store_ID column. This is the only relationship
between the tables.
You plan to use Power BI desktop to create an analytics solution for the data.
End of repeated scenario.
You plan to create a chart that displays total Order [Order_amount] by Store [Name].
You need to modify the model to ensure that you can create the chart.
Which two actions should you perform? Each correct answer presents part of the solution.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
A. To the Order table, add a column that uses the RELATED(`Store\\’ [Store_ID]) DAX formula.
B. Create a relationship between the Order table and the Store table.
C. To the Order table, add a measure that uses the COUNT (`Order\\'[Order_amount]) DAX formula.
D. To the order table, add a measure that uses the SUM (`Order\\’ [Order_amount]) DAX formula.
Correct Answer: AD
References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/power-bi/desktop-tutorial-create-measures https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/power-bi/desktop-tutorial-create-calculated-columns

QUESTION 13
You have a Power BI app named App1. The privacy for the App1 app workspace is set to Private.
A user named User1 reports that App1 does not appear in the My organization AppSource. App1 appears in the My
organization AppSource for your account.
You need to ensure that User1 sees App1 from the My organization AppSource.
What should you do?
A. From the app workspace, click Update app, configure the Access setting, and then click Update app.
B. From the app workspace, share the dashboard.
C. From the app workspace settings, add a member.
D. From the app workspace, click Update app, configure the Content settings, and then click Update app.
Correct Answer: A

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Microsoft MCSE 70-744 Exam Video

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Table of Contents:

Latest Microsoft MCSE 70-744 google drive

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Exam 70-744: Securing Windows Server 2016 – Microsoft:https://www.microsoft.com/en-us/learning/exam-70-744.aspx

Skills measured: This exam measures your ability to accomplish the technical tasks listed below.

  • Implement Server Hardening Solutions (25-30%)
  • Secure a Virtualization Infrastructure (5-10%)
  • Secure a Network Infrastructure (10-15%)
  • Manage Privileged Identities (25-30%)
  • Implement Threat Detection Solutions (15-20%)
  • Implement Workload-Specific Security (5-10%)

Who should take this exam?

Candidates for this exam secure Windows Server 2016 environments. Candidates are familiar with the methods and technologies used to harden server environments and secure virtual machine infrastructures using Shielded and encryption-supported virtual machines and Guarded Fabric.

Candidates manage the protection of Active Directory and Identity infrastructures and manage privileged identities using Just in Time (JIT) and Just Enough Administration (JEA) approaches, as well as implement Privileged Access Workstations (PAWs) and secure servers using the Local Administrator Password Solution (LAPS).

Candidates should also be able to use threat detection solutions such as auditing access, implementing Advanced Threat Analytics (ATA), deploying Operations Management Suite (OMS) solutions, and identifying solutions for specific workloads.

Latest updates Microsoft 70-744 exam practice questions

QUESTION 1
Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com.
The domain contains a computer named Computer1 that runs Windows 10.
The network uses the 172.16.0.0/16 address space.
Computer1 has an application named App1.exe that is located in D:\\Apps\\.
App1.exe is configured to accept connections on TCP port 8080.
You need to ensure that App1.exe can accept connections only when Computer1 is connected to the corporate
network.
Solution: You configure an inbound rule that allows the TCP protocol on port 8080, uses a scope of 172.16.0.0/16 for
local IP addresses, and applies to a private profile.
Does this meet the goal?
A. Yes
B. No
Correct Answer: B
“You need to ensure that App1.exe can accept connections only when Computer1 is connected to thecorporate
network.”, you should create the firewall rule for”Domain” profile instead, not the “Private” profile.
https://technet.microsoft.com/en-us/library/getting-started-wfas-firewall-profiles-ipsec(v=ws.10).aspxleads4pass 70-744 exam question q1

 

QUESTION 2
You are building a guarded fabric. You need to configure Admin-trusted attestation. Which cmdlet should you use?
A. Add-HgsAttestationHostGroup
B. Add-HgsAttestationTpmHost
C. Add-HgsAttestationCIPolicy
D. Add-HgsAttestationTpmPolicy
Correct Answer: A
Authorize Hyper-V hosts using Admin-trusted attestation https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/windows-server/virtualization/guarded-fabric-shielded-vm/guarded-fabric-addhost-information-for-admin-trusted-attestation

 

QUESTION 3
Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com.
You deploy a server named Server1 that runs Windows Server 2016. Server1 is in a workgroup.
You need to collect the logs from Server1 by using Log Analytics in Microsoft Operations Management Suite (OMS).
What should you do first?
A. Join Server1 to the domain.
B. Create a Data Collector Set.
C. Install Microsoft Monitoring Agent on Server1.
D. Create an event subscription.
Correct Answer: C
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/log-analytics/log-analytics-windows-agents  You need to install and connect
Microsoft Monitoring Agent for all of the computers that youleads4pass 70-744 exam question q3

You can install the OMS MMA on stand-alone computers, servers, and virtual machines.

 

QUESTION 4
You have a Hyper-V host named Hyperv1 that has a virtual machine named FS1. FS1 is a file server that contains
sensitive data.
You need to secure FS1 to meet the following requirements:
-Prevent console access to FS1.
-Prevent data from being extracted from the VHDX file of FS1.
Which two actions should you perform? Each correct answer presents part of the solution.
A. Enable BitLocker Drive Encryption (BitLocker) for all the volumes on FS1
B. Disable the virtualization extensions for FS1
C. Disable all the Hyper-V integration services for FS1
D. On Hyperv1, enable BitLocker Drive Encryption (BitLocker) for the drive that contains the VHDX file for FS1.
E. Enable shielding for FS1
Correct Answer: AE
-Prevent console access to FS1. -> Enable shielding for FS1-Prevent data from being extracted from the VHDX file of
FS1. -> Enable BitLocker Drive Encryption(BitLocker) for all the volumes on FS1


QUESTION 5
Your network contains two Active Directory forests named contoso.com and adatum.com.
Contoso.com contains a Hyper-V host named Server1. Server1 is a member of a group named HyperHosts.
Adatum.com contains a server named Server2. Server1 and Server2 run Windows Server 2016.
Contoso.com trusts adatum.com.
You plan to deploy shielded virtual machines to Server1 and to configure Admin-trusted attestation on Server2.
Which component should you install and which cmdlet should you run on Server2? To answer, select the appropriate
options in the answer area.
Hot Area:leads4pass 70-744 exam question q5

Correct Answer:

leads4pass 70-744 exam question q5-1

 

QUESTION 6
You plan to deploy three encrypted virtual machines that use Secure Boot. The virtual machines will be configured as
shown in the following table.leads4pass 70-744 exam question q6

How should you protect each virtual machine? To answer, select the appropriate options in the answer area.
Hot Area:

leads4pass 70-744 exam question q6-1

Correct Answer:

leads4pass 70-744 exam question q6-2

 

QUESTION 7
You plan to enable Credential Guard on four servers. Credential Guard secrets will be bound to the TPM.
The servers run Windows Server 2016 and are configured as shown in the following table.leads4pass 70-744 exam question q7

You need to identify which server you must modify to support the planned implementation. Which server should you
identify?
A. Server1
B. Server2
C. Server3
D. Server4
Correct Answer: D
References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/windows/access-protection/credential-guard/credential-guardrequirements

 

QUESTION 8
Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com. The domain contains a server named Serve1,
that runs Windows Server 2016.
A technician is testing the deployment of Credential Guard on Server1.
You need to verify whether Credential Guard is enabled on Server1.
What should you do?
A. From a command prompt fun the credwiz.exe command.
B. From Task Manager, review the processes listed on the Details tab.
C. From Server Manager, click Local Server, and review the properties of Server!
D. From Windows PowerShell, run the Get-WsManCredSSP cmdlet.
Correct Answer: B
https://yungchou.wordpress.com/2016/10/10/credential-guard-made-easy-in-windows-10-version-1607/ The same as
before, once Credential Guard is properly configured, up and running.You should find in Task Manager the `Credential
Guard\\’ process and `lsaiso.exe\\’ listed in the Detailspage as below.leads4pass 70-744 exam question q8

 

QUESTION 9
Note: Thb question Is part of a series of questions that present the same scenario. Each question In the series contains
a unique solution that might meet the stated goals. Some question sets might have more than one correct solution,
while others might not have a correct solution.
After you answer a question in this section, you willNOTbeabletorrturntoit.Asa result, these questions will not appear in
the review screen.
Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com. The domain contains multiple Hyper-V hosts.
You need to deploy several critical line-of-business applications to the network to meet the following requirements:
*The resources of the applications must be isolated from the physical host
*Each application must be prevented from accessing the resources of the other applications.
*The configurations of the applications must be accessible only from the operating system that hosts the application.
Solution: You deploy one Windows container to host all of the applications.
Does this meet the goal?
A. Yes
B. No
Correct Answer: B
References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/virtualization/windowscontainers/about/

 

QUESTION 10
Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com.
You are deploying Microsoft Advanced Threat Analytics (ATA).
You create a user named User1.
You need to configure the user account of User1 as a Honeytoken account.
Which information must you use to configure the Honeytoken account?
A. the SAM account name of User1
B. the Globally Unique Identifier (GUID) of User1
C. the SID of User1
D. the UPN of User1
Correct Answer: C
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/advanced-threat-analytics/ata-prerequisitesA user account of a user who has no
network activities.This account is configured as the ATA Honeytoken user.To configure the Honeytoken user you need
the SID of the user account, not the username.leads4pass 70-744 exam question q10

https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/advanced-threat-analytics/install-ata-step7ATA also enables the configuration of a
Honeytoken user, which is used as a trap for malicious actors ?anyauthentication associated with this (normally
dormant) account will trigger an alert.

 

QUESTION 11
Note: This question is part of a series of questions that present the same scenario. Each question in the series contains
a unique solution that might meet the stated goals. Some question sets might have more than one correct solution,
while
others might not have a correct solution.
After you answer a question in this sections, you will NOT be able to return to it. As a result, these questions will not
appear in the review screen.
Your network contain an Active Directory domain named contoso.com. The domain contains a computer named
Computer1 that runs Windows 10. Computer1 connects to a home network and a corporate network.
The corporate network uses the 172.16.0.0/24 address space internally.
Computer1 runs an application named App1 that listens to port 8080.
You need to prevent connections to App1 when Computer1 is connected to the home network.
Solution: From Group Policy Management, you create software restriction policy.
Does this meet the goal?
A. Yes
B. No
Correct Answer: B
References: https://technet.microsoft.com/en-us/library/hh831534(v=ws.11).aspx

 

QUESTION 12
You manage a guarded fabric in TPM-trusted attestation mode.
You plan to create a virtual machine template disk for shielded virtual machines.
You need to create the virtual machine disk that you will use to generate the template.
How should you configure the disk? To answer, select the appropriate options in the answer area.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
Hot Area:leads4pass 70-744 exam question q12

Correct Answer:

leads4pass 70-744 exam question q12-1

References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/windows-server/virtualization/guarded-fabric-shielded-vm/guarded-fabric-configuration-scenarios-for-shielded-vms-overview https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/system-center/dpm/what-s-new-in-dpm-2016?view=sc-dpm-1801


QUESTION 13
Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com.
You are deploying Microsoft Advanced Threat Analytics (ATA) to the domain. You install the ATA Gateway on a server
named Server1.
To assist in detecting Pass-the-Hash attacks, you plan to configure ATA Gateway to collect events.
You need to configure the query filter for event subscriptions on Server1.
How should you configure the query filter? To answer, select the appropriate options in the answer are.
Hot Area:leads4pass 70-744 exam question q13

Correct Answer:

leads4pass 70-744 exam question q13-1

https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/advanced-threat-analytics/configure-event-collectionTo enhance detection capabilities,
ATA needs the following Windows events: 4776, 4732, 4733, 4728, 4729,4756, 4757.These can either be read
automatically by the ATA Lightweight Gateway or in case the ATA LightweightGateway is not deployed,it can be
forwarded to the ATA Gateway in one of two ways, by configuring the ATA Gateway to listen for SIEMevents or by
configuring Windows Event Forwarding.
Event ID: 4776 NTLM authentication is being used against domain controllerEvent ID: 4732 A User is Added to Security-
Enabled DOMAIN LOCAL Group,Event ID: 4733 A User is removed from Security-Enabled DOMAIN LOCAL
GroupEvent ID: 4728 A User is Added or Removed from Security-Enabled Global Group Event ID: 4729 A User is
Removed from Security-Enabled GLOBAL GroupEvent ID: 4756 A User is Added or Removed From Security-Enabled
Universal GroupEvent ID: 4757 A User is Removed From Security-Enabled Universal Group

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Microsoft Dynamics 365 Unified Operations Core” Exam MB-300.
Candidates for this exam are functional consultants who analyze business requirements and translate those requirements into fully realized business processes and solutions that implement industry best practices. Candidates serve as a key resource in implementing and configuring applications to meet business requirements.

Candidates for this exam have a fundamental understanding of accounting principles and financial operations of businesses,
customer service, field service, manufacturing, retail, and supply chain management concepts.

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MB-300 exam

Candidates for this exam typically specialize in one or more feature sets of Microsoft Dynamics 365 Finance and Operations, including finance, manufacturing, and supply chain management

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Exam MB-300: Microsoft Dynamics 365 Unified Operations Core:https://www.microsoft.com/en-us/learning/exam-MB-300.aspx

Skills measured

  • Use common functionality and implementation tools (20-25%)
  • Configure security, processes, and options (45-50%)
  • Perform data migration (15-20%)
  • Validate and support the solution (15-20%)

Free Microsoft MB-300 Exam Practice Questions

QUESTION 1
You are a Dynamics 365 for Finance and Operations implementation team lead.
A series of test plans need to be created and tracked during a company\\’s development phase. Multiple users will be
testing multiple aspects as code is released. Issues and remediations to bugs will also need to be tracked.
You need to identify Microsoft solutions that offer these capabilities.
What should you use?
A. Dynamics 365 for Finance and Operations
B. Lifecycle Services (LCS)
C. Solution management
D. Microsoft Azure DevOps
Correct Answer: D

 

QUESTION 2
You are a Dynamics 365 for Finance and Operations systems administrator.
Microsoft recently released a new feature for public preview that would add significant value to your organization without
licensing adjustments.
You need to enable the feature.
Where can you enable the preview feature?
A. Solution management
B. Lifecycle Services
C. Organizational administration module
D. experience.dynamics.com
E. System administration module
Correct Answer: E

 

QUESTION 3
You implement Dynamics 365 for Finance and Operations. The implementation will undergo User Acceptance Testing
(UAT).
You create test case recordings. To coordinate testing across multiple environments, UAT must be integrated with
Microsoft Azure DevOps.
You need to configure Business process modeler (BPM) and Azure DevOps to complete user acceptance testing.
Which three actions should you perform? Each correct answer presents a complete solution.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
A. Synchronize the BPM library with Azure DevOps
B. Create a test pass and test case in Azure DevOps
C. Upload saved Task recorder files to BPM
D. Create a test plan and test suites in Azure DevOps
E. Synchronize the BPM library with a Git repo
F. Upload saved Task recorder files to Azure DevOps
Correct Answer: ACD
References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/dynamics365/unified-operations/dev-itpro/lifecycle-services/using-task-guides-and-bpm-to-create-user-acceptance-tests

 

QUESTION 4
A company implements Dynamics 365 for Finance and Operations.
You are the primary approver for purchase requisitions that are greater than $500,000. You are going on vacation for
two weeks.
You need to assign another user as the approver only for purchase requisitions greater than $500,000.
What should you do?
A. Under User Options, add a user and assign the scope of Module
B. Under User Options, add a user and assign the scope of All
C. Under User Options, add a user and assign the scope of Workflow
Correct Answer: C

 

QUESTION 5
You set up security roles for the users in a company.
You must use standard security roles when possible.
You need to identify the standard security roles.
Which of the following can you assign to a user as a standard security role?
A. Waterspider
B. System engineer
C. Developer
D. Business development manager
Correct Answer: A

 

QUESTION 6
You are a systems administrator at a company that has implemented Dynamics 365 for Finance and Operations.
New employees are starting at the company.
You need to extend the electronic signatures functionality to them.
Which two actions should you perform? Each answer presents part of the solution.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
A. On the Email parameters page, specify that SSL is required
B. Specify the user\\’s email address
C. In License configuration, enable Maintenance mode
D. Select the Electronic signature check box
Correct Answer: CD
References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/dynamics365/unified-operations/fin-and-ops/organization-administration/tasks/set-up-electronic-signatures

 

QUESTION 7
You plan the migration from Dynamics AX 2009 to a Dynamics 365 for Finance and Operations environment.
You will be moving data.
You need to create a data package from a group of entities in Dynamics AX 2009.
What should you use?
A. Upgrade analyzer
B. Code upgrade estimation tools
C. Dynamics AX 2009 Data migration tool (DMT)
D. Data Import/Export Framework (DIXF)
Correct Answer: D
References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/dynamics365/unified-operations/dev-itpro/migration-upgrade/ax2009-upgrade-export-package

 

QUESTION 8
You are a Dynamics 365 for Finance and Operations systems administrator.
Your company needs to document and test all possible scenarios for a given implementation. Implementation gaps
need to be documented using the tool available for tracking and linking to delivered extensions.
You need to identify the correct tool to accomplish this.
What should you use?
A. APQC Unified Libraries
B. Shared asset library
C. Business process modeler (BPM)
D. Microsoft Azure DevOps
Correct Answer: C

 

QUESTION 9
You are a Dynamics 365 for Finance and Operations system administrator.
Data is being migrated from a customized version of a legacy application to Dynamics 365 for Finance and Operations.
Some of the fields in the entity are the same, and some are different.
As a starting point, you need to automatically map as many fields as possible within Dynamics 365 for Finance and
Operations.
Which feature or tool should you use?
A. Use the Mapping visualization tool
B. Generate source mapping
C. Use Data templates
D. Use the Data task automation tool
E. Copy configuration data
Correct Answer: A
References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/dynamics365/unified-operations/dev-itpro/data-entities/data-entities-data-packages?toc=/fin-and-ops/toc.json#mapping


QUESTION 10
You are responsible for regulatory compliance for a Dynamics 365 for Finance and Operations environment. You need
to be able to search for the regulatory features of Dynamics 365 for Finance and Operations. What should you use?
A. Intelligent Data Management Framework (IDMF)
B. System diagnostics
C. Application Object Tree (AOT)
D. Issue search
Correct Answer: D
References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/dynamics365/unified-operations/dev-itpro/lifecycle-services/issue-search-lcs

 

QUESTION 11
You plan a data migration from Dynamics AX 2009 to a Dynamics 365 for Finance and Operations environment.
You need to ensure that you can perform the data migration.
What should you do first?
A. Upgrade the existing on-premises environment to Dynamics 365 for Finance and Operations online
B. Migrate content to Dynamics POS (Point-of-Sale) 2009
C. Upgrade the existing on-premises environment to Dynamics AX 2012 R2
D. Migrate content to Dynamics 365 Business Central
Correct Answer: C

 

QUESTION 12
A company implements Dynamics 365 for Finance and Operations.
They need additional information and want a subledger to record information for additional reporting rather than
customizing all reports.
You need to set up the posting to accommodate the need for a subledger.
Which three actions should you take? Each answer presents part of the solution.
A. Update existing reports to prevent data in the identified area from reporting
B. Create posting profiles to post to the identified area as needed for the request
C. Create posting definitions to post to the identified area as needed for the request
D. Update existing reports to add data in the identified area
E. Identify an area of the chart of accounts to record to as the subledger
Correct Answer: BDE

 

QUESTION 13
You are a Dynamics 365 for Finance and Operations security administrator.
Users are reporting that they cannot access a given form in the system.
You need to quickly identify what roles, duties, and privileges grant access to this form to determine the best course of
action for granting access.
What should you do?
A. Security duty assignments report
B. Security role access report
C. Security development tool
D. Security diagnostics
E. Maintenance mode
Correct Answer: D

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CCDE Written Exam” Exam 352-001. Here you can get the latest free 352-001 exam exercise questions and answers for free and easily improve your skills!

352-001 exam

Cisco CCDE written exam will validate that professionals have the expertise to gather and clarify network functional requirements, develop network designs to meet functional specifications, develop an implementation plan, convey design decisions and their rationale, and possess expert-level network infrastructure knowledge.

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Free Cisco CCDE 352-001 Exam Practice Questions

QUESTION 1
In an OSPF network with 20 routers connected together with Ethernet cabling , which topology typically takes the
longest to converge?
A. Full mesh
B. Ring
C. Squared
D. Triangulated
E. Partial mesh
Correct Answer: B

 

QUESTION 2
Company A has grown nationwide in the U.S., and each new remote branch has a Metro Ethernet circuit provisioned
back to the data center at the headquarters on the West Coast. The operations team says that it cannot manage
hundreds of circuits as the company continues to grow. You review the topology and notice that many of the branches
are close to each other in geographical zones. How can you redesign this network to improve manageability and
increase scalability?
A. Add an aggregation layer router in each geographical zone.
B. Add a redundant data center on the East Coast to serve some of the traffic there.
C. Add a default route in each branch toward the data center on the West Coast.
D. Use Optimized Edge Routing at the data center.
E. Build an overlay MPLS network with Layer 3 VPN.
Correct Answer: A


QUESTION 3
A service provider is offering a QoS-based transport service. Three classes have been defined in the core, including an
Expedited Forwarding (EF) class for VoIP traffic. Which tool should be used at the ingress for the EF class?
A. policing
B. shaping
C. WRED
D. CB-WFQ
Correct Answer: A


QUESTION 4
Your enterprise customer has asked where they should deploy flow monitoring in their network to monitor traffic
between branch offices. What is your design recommendation?
A. at the edge of the network so that user traffic will be seen
B. at the central site, because all traffic from the remotes will be seen there.
C. in the core, because all traffic will be seen there
D. in the data center, because all user traffic will be seen there
Correct Answer: B

 

QUESTION 5
Which design option reduces the occurrence of IGP microloops?
A. Deploy LSA throttle.
B. Tune the SPF hold time to be lower than the SPF runtime on all nodes.
C. Tune the SPF runtime to be lower than the SPF hold time on all nodes.
D. Deploy LFA.
Correct Answer: D

 

QUESTION 6
In an MPLS-VPN environment, what is the effect of configuring an identical set of route targets for a particular VRF, but
then configuring nonidentical route distinguisher across multiple PE devices?
A. The routes will be correctly handled by the control plane, but there will be instances where routes take up twice as
much memory.
B. The routes will propagate to the remote PE, but the PE will never install them in its forwarding table.
C. The routes will be rejected by the remote PE because they have a different RD than its routes.
D. The routes will not even be sent to any remote PE with a different RD.
Correct Answer: A


QUESTION 7
You are tasked with implementing a 1000-phone remote access solution, where phone calls will traverse a WAN edge
router. Assuming all of the following features are supported in a hardware- assisted manner, which of the following will
have the most negative impact
A. encryption
B. stateful firewall
C. MPLS encapsulation
D. GRE encapsulation
Correct Answer: A


QUESTION 8
ACME Corporation is deploying a new HR application that requires the network infrastructure to monitor and react to
certain conditions in the network. Which feature should be used to meet this design requirement?
A. Cisco IOS Embedded Event Manager
B. IP SLA
C. reflexive ACLs
D. route maps
E. SOAP
F. exit status
Correct Answer: A

 

QUESTION 9
Why is H-VPLS considered more scalable than flat VPLS?
A. It minimizes signaling overhead by building two separate layers pseudowire meshes.
B. It minimizes signaling overhead by only requiring a full pseudowire mesh among N-PEs.
C. It eliminates signaling overhead on core devices.
D. It eliminates signaling overhead between the N-PE and U-PE.
Correct Answer: AB


QUESTION 10
You have been hired by Acme Corporation to evaluate their existing network and determine if the current network
design is secure enough to prevent man-in-the-middle attacks. When evaluating the network, which switch security
option should you investigate to ensure that authorized ARP responses take place according to known IP-to-MAC
address mapping?
A. ARP rate limiting
B. DHCP snooping
C. Dynamic ARP Inspections
D. IP Source Guard
Correct Answer: C

 

QUESTION 11
What is the primary requirement for deploying OSPF graceful restart on a router?
A. Aggressive routing protocol hellos and keepalives must be running on the router.
B. The adjacent router must support graceful restart helper mode.
C. Some form of fast Layer 2 down detection must be enabled on the router.
D. The adjacent routers must be enabled to forward traffic during the failure.
Correct Answer: B

 

QUESTION 12
Why should IGP advertisements be disabled on an access link where a host is attached?
A. because hosts do not run routing protocols
B. to prevent the injection of bad routes
C. to reduce router overhead
D. because edge hosts are statically routed
Correct Answer: B

 

QUESTION 13
To improve the stability of a global network, you have been tasked with changing the design to include link-state
topology summarization. What are two issues that you should address as part of the design? (Choose two.)
A. slow convergence
B. suboptimal routing
C. traffic black-holing
D. packet reordering
Correct Answer: BC

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QUESTION 1
Which statement about the MPLS feature set is true?
A. It is not license dependent.
B. It can be installed from any VDC.
C. It can be enabled only in the default VDC.
D. It must be installed from the default VDC.
Correct Answer: D

 

QUESTION 2
You have multiple OTV edge devices in each OTV site. Which configuration prevents an end-to-end STP loop?
A. FHRP filtering
B. selective unicast flooding
C. AED election
D. ARP local caching
Correct Answer: C
Reference:
https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/solutions/Enterprise/Data_Center/DCI/whitepaper/DCI3_OTV_Intro/DCI_1.html

 

QUESTION 3
Refer to the exhibit. Which IP address does N9K-1 use to represent itself when connecting to a remote NVE peer?leads4pass 300-165 exam question q3

A. 10.100.100.100
B. 10.100.100.1
C. 10.10.10.10
D. 10.1.1.0
Correct Answer: A
Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/support/docs/switches/nexus-9000-series-switches/118978-config-vxlan-00.html

 

QUESTION 4
Which two benefits are realized when deploying Cisco Catalyst 6500 VSS 1440 functionality in a data center? (Choose
two.)
A. Stateful Switchover across chassis
B. enhanced security of network equipment
C. enhanced speed of spanning-tree convergence
D. reduced number of Inter-Switch Links
E. implementation of Multichassis EtherChannel
F. deployment of VRRP and HSRP
Correct Answer: AE

 

QUESTION 5
Which three Cisco UCS C-Series CNAs support Adapter FEX? (Choose three.)
A. Qlogic QLE8152
B. Broadcom BCM57712
C. Cisco UCS P81E
D. Cisco UCS VIC 1220
E. Emulex OCe10102-FX-C
F. Intel X520
Correct Answer: BCD
http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/unified_computing/ucs/c-series_integration/ucsm2-1/b_UCSM2-1_C-Integration/b_UCSM2-1_C-Integration_chapter_011.html#reference_D644111FC68046F0BEA49756A0834664

 

QUESTION 6
Which statement about enhanced zoning on Cisco Multilayer Director Switches is true?
A. Zone changes can scheduled with a CRON job.
B. It allows patial zone set changes to be distributed without having to active a zone set.
C. Enhanced zoning is compatible with IVR.
D. More than one zone set can be active wit enhanced zoning.
Correct Answer: B

 

QUESTION 7
Which three selections represent implementations of Cisco VN-Link technology? (Choose three.)
A. Cisco Nexus 1000V
B. Cisco Nexus 2000 FEX
C. Cisco VM-FEX
D. VMware PTS
E. vMotion
Correct Answer: ACD
The VM is powered on and resides on the ESX Host 1 with all the information stored on the shared storage. The VM
was connected to the PODy (where y is the number of your POD) PTS VDS by associating it to port group VLAN61 that
was
created on the Cisco Nexus 5548 device. The VM has been connected to the vPC system automatically using a VN-Link
in the hardware in PTS mode or in VM-FEX mode.
The VEM bits are used in PTS mode to connect the VM VNIC to the VMNIC interface.
In this case, the VMNIC interface is not a real VMNIC but a dynamic VNIC that is presented as an interface to the ESX
OS. The dynamic VNIC is enabled when the Cisco UCS VIC creates and configures the VNIC parameters inherited
from
port group VLAN61.

 

QUESTION 8
In policy-based routing, which action is taken for packets that do not match any of the route-map statements?
A. forwarded using the closest matching route-map statement
B. forwarded using destination-based routing
C. forwarded after the egress queue empties on the outbound interface
D. forwarded using the last statement in the route map
Correct Answer: B

 

QUESTION 9
Assuming hello PDU authentication has been disabled, which command re-enables the feature on a FabricPath
interface?
A. switch (config-if) # fabricpath isis authentication-type cleartext
B. switch (config-if) # fabricpath isis authentication-type md5
C. switch (config-if) # fabricpath isis authentication check
D. switch (config-if) # fabricpath isis hello-interval
Correct Answer: C


QUESTION 10

leads4pass 300-165 exam question q10

Refer to the exhibit. Which corrective action is taken to resolve the problem?
A. Use shut and no shut on interface ethernet 199/1/1 so that the VLANs come up.
B. Place interface ethernet 199/1/1 in VLAN 4 in the N5K-2 configuration.
C. Add VLAN 4 to vPC 199
D. Prune all but four VLANs from vPC 199.
Correct Answer: B

 

QUESTION 11
Refer to the exhibit. Which two commands are missing from this configuration that an admin needs to integrate a Cisco
Nexus 5000 switch with vCenter to leverage VM-FEX? (Choose two.)leads4pass 300-165 exam question q11

A. vmware dvs datacenter-name
B. vmware dvs
C. remote ip address port 80 vrf
D. connection-type vmware
E. installation-method auto
Correct Answer: AC

 

QUESTION 12
Which situation must you consider when you add a remote RADIUS server to a Cisco Nexus device?
A. If RADIUS authentication fails, the device falls back to local authentication automatically.
B. If RADIUS authentication fails, the user is denied access with no further authentication checks.
C. If the RADIUS server is unreachable, users are unable to log in.
D. If the RADIUS server is unreachable, all users are given access with the default role.
Correct Answer: B

 

QUESTION 13
You have a vPC configuration with two functional peers and the peer link is up. Which two statements describe
spanning-tree operations in the configuration? (Choose two.)
A. The secondary switch processes BPDUs only if the peer-link fails
B. The primary and secondary switch generate and process BPDUs
C. vPC imposes a rule that the peer link is always blocking
D. vPC removes some VLANs from the spanning tree for vPC use
E. vPC requires the peer link to remain in the forwarding state.
Correct Answer: AC

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Free test Cisco CCNP Collaboration 300-070 Exam questions and Answers

QUESTION 1
When comparing SIP H.323 and MGCP, which of the following is specific to SIP?
A. The dial plan is directly on the gateway.
B. SIP provides support for third-party entities.
C. SIP defines Translation per the gateway.
D. SIP has a centralized dial plan.
Correct Answer: B


QUESTION 2
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A. Phone A
B. Phone B
C. Phone C
D. Phone D
Correct Answer: B


QUESTION 3
On Cisco Unified Communications Manager, where can you change the softkey templates from your IP phone?
A. Cisco Unified Communications Manager Serviceability > Device > Device Settings > Softkey Templates.
B. Cisco Unified Communications Manager Administration > Device > Device Settings > Softkey Templates.
C. Cisco Unified Communications Manager Administration > Device > Device Settings > Phone ButtonTemplate.
D. Cisco Unified Communications Manager Administration > Device > Device Settings > Device Defaults.
Correct Answer: B


QUESTION 4
Which two transcoder types does Cisco Unified Communications Manager support? (Choose two.)
A. IOS enhanced media termination point
B. Virtual media termination point
C. PLDM Termination Point
D. ISR termination point
E. Media termination point hardware
Correct Answer: AE


QUESTION 5
How are Cisco Unified CallManager location parameters used?
A. Assign directory numbers to devices as they connect to the IP telephony network.
B. Specify the bandwidth used for audio and video calls.
C. Implement call admission control in a centralized call processing deployment.
D. Provide alternate call routing when the primary call path is unavailable.
Correct Answer: C


QUESTION 6
How does Cisco Unified Border Element attach recorder profiles for media forking?
A. codec configuration
B. dial peers
C. SIP trunks
D. CTI integration
Correct Answer: B


QUESTION 7
Which two options describe how the Cisco Unified Communications Manager Auto-Register Phone Tool updates auto-
registering IP phones? (Choose two.)
A. An administrator can schedule when auto-registered phones can dial in to the Cisco Unified Communications
Manager Auto-Register Phone Tool directory number.
B. A new phone can dial in to the Cisco Unified Communications Manager Auto-Register Phone Tool directory number
to manage the device user profile.
C. A new phone can dial in to the Cisco Unified Communications Manager Auto-Register Phone Tool directory number
to update its MAC address in Cisco Unified Communications Manager and download the correct configuration file
D. A replacement phone can dial in to the Cisco Unified Communications Manager Auto-Register Phone Tool directory
number to register with Cisco Unified Communications Manager.
E. A replacement phone can dial in to the Cisco Unified Communications Manager Auto-Register Phone Tool directory
number to download the configuration for the phone it replaces.
Correct Answer: CE


QUESTION 8
Which wildcard character in a route pattern can be used to match to one or more digits in the range 0 through 9?
A. +
B. X
C. !
D. ?
Correct Answer: C


QUESTION 9
Which Cisco Unified Communications Manager menu path is used to access the softkey template configuration
window?
A. Device > Device Settings > Softkey Templates
B. Device Settings > Softkey Templates
C. IP Phone > Template > Softkey
D. Device > IP Phone > Template > Softkey
Correct Answer: A


QUESTION 10
Which three options are types of media resources in CUCM? (Choose three.)
A. Music on hold
B. H.323 trunk
C. Media Termination Point
D. Meet-Me Conference
E. SIP trunk
F. Transcoder
Correct Answer: ACF


QUESTION 11
Which three options are valid SIP URI formats? (Choose three.)
A. [email protected]
B. tel:[email protected]
C. phone:[email protected]
D. sip:[email protected]:5060;user=phone
E. sip:bob.cisco.com
Correct Answer: ABD


QUESTION 12
Which three options are components of Media Resources Architecture? (Choose three.)
A. Music on hold
B. Media Resource Manager
C. Media Resource Group
D. Route list
E. Route group
F. Media Resource Group List
Correct Answer: BCF


QUESTION 13
Which two options can a route pattern be assigned? (Choose two.)
A. a gateway that is not assigned to a route group
B. a gateway that is assigned to a route group
C. a route list with no route groups configured
D. a route list with one or more route groups configured
Correct Answer: AD

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Free test Cisco CCNA Cyber Ops 210-255 Exam questions and Answers

QUESTION 1
What is the common artifact that is used to uniquely identify a detected file?
A. Hash
B. Timestamp
C. File size
Correct Answer: A


QUESTION 2
Which CVSSv3 Attack Vector metric value requires the attacker to physically touch or manipulate the vulnerable
component?
A. local
B. physical
C. network
D. adjacent
Correct Answer: B


QUESTION 3
Which element is included in an incident response plan?
A. organization mission
B. junior analyst approval
C. day-to-day firefighting
D. siloed approach to communications
Correct Answer: A


QUESTION 4
Which of the following is an example of a managed security offering where incident response experts monitor and
respond to security alerts in a security operations center (SOC)?
A. Cisco CloudLock
B. Cisco\\’s Active Threat Analytics (ATA)
C. Cisco Managed Firepower Service
D. Cisco Jasper
Correct Answer: B


QUESTION 5
Which option is unnecessary for determining the appropriate containment strategy according to NIST.SP800-61 r2?
A. effectiveness of the strategy
B. time and resource needed to implement the strategy
C. need for evidence preservation
D. attack vector used to compromise the system
Correct Answer: D


QUESTION 6
Which CVSSv3 metric value increases when the attacker is able to modify all files protected by the vulnerable
component?
A. confidentiality
B. integrity
C. availability
D. complexity
Correct Answer: B


QUESTION 7
Which of the following is true about attribution in a cybersecurity investigation?
A. A suspect-led approach is often accepted in supreme courts.
B. A suspect-led approach is pejorative and often biased to the disadvantage of those being investigated.
C. A suspect-led approach is mostly used in corporate investigations.
D. A suspect-led approach is mostly used in private investigations.
Correct Answer: B


QUESTION 8
Which component of the NIST SP800-61 r2 incident handling strategy reviews data?
A. preparation
B. detection and analysis
C. containment, eradication, and recovery
D. post-incident analysis
Correct Answer: D


QUESTION 9
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B. The server at 10.67.10.5 has a virus.
C. A vulnerability scanner has shown that 10.67.10.5 has been compromised.
D. Web traffic sent from 10.67.10.5 has been identified as malicious by Internet sensors.
Correct Answer: D


QUESTION 10
Which analyzing technique describe the outcome as well as how likely each outcome is?
A. deterministic
B. exploratory
C. probabilistic
D. descriptive
Correct Answer: C


QUESTION 11
Which network device creates and sends the initial packet of a session?
A. source
B. origination
C. destination
D. network
Correct Answer: A


QUESTION 12
At which stage attacking the vulnerability belongs in Cyber kill chain?
A. Exploitation
B. Reconnaissance
C. Weaponization
D. Delivery
E. Installation
F. Command and control (C2)
G. Actions on objectives
Correct Answer: A


QUESTION 13
Which element can be used by a threat actor to discover a possible opening into a target network and can also be used
by an analyst to determine the protocol of the malicious traffic?
A. TTLs
B. ports
C. SMTP replies
D. IP addresses
Correct Answer: B

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Skills measured

  • Install and configure (20–25%)
  • Maintain instances and databases (15–20%)
  • Optimize and troubleshoot (15–20%)
  • Manage data (20–25%)
  • Implement security (15–20%)
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Latest effective Microsoft Business Intelligence 70-462 Exam Practice Tests

QUESTION 1
You administer all the deployments of Microsoft SQL Server 2012 in your company. You need to ensure that data
changes are sent to a non-SQL Server database server in near real time. You also need to ensure that data on the
primary
server is unaffected.
Which configuration should you use?
A.
SQL Server that includes an application database configured to perform transactional replication
B.
Two servers configured in different data centers
SQL Server Availability Group configured in Asynchronous-Commit Availability Mode
C.
Two servers configured in different data centers
SQL Server Availability Group configured in Synchronous-Commit Availability Mode
One server configured as an Active Secondary
D.
SQL Server that includes an application database configured to perform snapshot replication
E.
Two servers configured in the same data center
SQL Server Availability Group configured in Asynchronous-Commit Availability Mode
One server configured as an Active Secondary
F.
Two servers configured on the same subnet
SQL Server Availability Group configured in Synchronous-Commit Availability Mode
G.
Two servers configured in a Windows Failover Cluster in the same data center
SQL Server configured as a clustered instance
H.
Two servers configured in the same data center
A primary server configured to perform log-shipping every 10 minutes
A backup server configured as a warm standby
Correct Answer: A
Reference:
http://msdn.microsoft.com/en -us/library/ms151149.aspx


QUESTION 2
What is the minimum recommended amount of RAM for SQL Server 2012 Enterprise?
A. 512 MB
B. 1 GB
C. 2 GB
D. 4 GB
Correct Answer: B


QUESTION 3
You are a database administrator for a Microsoft SQL Server 2012 environment. You want to deploy a new application
that will scale out the workload to at least five different SQL Server instances. You need to ensure that for each copy of
the
database, users are able to read and write data that will then be synchronized between all of the database instances.
Which feature should you use?
A. Database Mirroring
B. Peer-to-Peer Replication
C. Log Shipping
D. AvailabilityGroups
Correct Answer: B


QUESTION 4
Which feature should you enable and configure so session requests addressed to a specific instance can be allocated
different processor resources based on session request properties?
A. Resource Governor
B. Windows System Resource Manager
C. Processor affinity
D. I/O affinity
Correct Answer: C


QUESTION 5
You administer a Microsoft SQL Server 2012 server that hosts a transactional database and a reporting database. The
transactional database is updated through a web application and is operational throughout the day. The reporting
database is only updated from the transactional database.
The recovery model and backup schedule are configured as shown in the following table:leads4pass 70-462 exam question q5The differential backup of the reporting database fails. Then, the reporting database fails at 14:00 hours. You need to
ensure that the reporting database is restored. You also need to ensure that data loss is minimal. What should you do?
A. Restorethelatestfullbackup, andrestorethelatestdifferentialbackup.Then, restorethelatestlogbackup.
B. Perform a point-in-time restore.
C. Restore the latest full backup.
D. Restorethe latestfullbackup, andrestore thelatestdifferential backup.Then, restoreeachlog backuptaken before the
time of failure from the most recent differential backup.
E. Restore the latest full backup. Then, restore the latest differential backup.
F. Restore the latest full backup. Then, restore each differential backup taken before the time of failure from the most
recentfull backup.
G. Perform a page restore.
H. Perform a partial restore.
Correct Answer: C


QUESTION 6
Before moving an SQL Server 2012 database file to a new location, which of the following must first be accomplished?
A. The database must be set to OFFLINE.
B. The SQL Server Service must be stopped.
C. The database must be deleted.
D. The database must have the shrink” operation run.
Correct Answer: A
https://msdn.microsoft.com/en -us/library/ms345483%28v=sql.110%29.aspx


QUESTION 7
Which of the following is a disaster recovery solution offered in SQL Server 2012 and involves maintaining a standby
copy of a primary database?
A. AlwaysOn
B. Log Shipping
C. Clustering
D. DataGuard
Correct Answer: A


QUESTION 8
Which of the following is a valid upgrade path for SQL Server 2012?
A. SQL Server 2000 -> SQL Server 2012
B. SQL Server 2000 -> SQL Server 2005 -> SQL Server 2012
C. SQL Server 7 -> SQL Server 2012
D. Oracle 11g -> SQL Server 2012
Correct Answer: B
https://technet.microsoft.com/en-us/library/ms143393%28v=sql.110%29.aspx https://technet.microsoft.com/en-
us/library/ms143393%28v=sql.90%29.aspx


QUESTION 9
You are developing a database application by using Microsoft SQL Server 2012. An application that uses a database
begins to run slowly.
You discover that a large amount of memory is consumed by single-use dynamic queries. You need to reduce
procedure cache usage from these statements without creating any additional indexes.
What should you do?
A. Add a HASH hint to the query.
B. Add a LOOP hint to the query.
C. AddaFORCESEEKhinttothequery.
D. Add an INCLUDE clause to the index.
E. Add a FORCESCAN hint to the Attach query.
F. Add a columnstore index to cover the query.
G. Enable the optimize for ad hoc workloads option.
H. Cover the unique clustered index with a columnstore index.
I. Include a SET FORCEPLAN ON statement before you run the query.
J. IncludeaSETSTATISTICSPROFILE ONstatementbeforeyou runthequery.
K. Include a SET STATISTICS SHOWPLAN_XML ON statement before you run the query.
L. Include a SET TRANSACTION ISOLATION LEVEL REPEATABLE READ statement before you run the query.
M. Include a SET TRANSACTION ISOLATION LEVEL SNAPSHOT statement before you run the query.
N. Include a SET TRANSACTION ISOLATION LEVEL SERIALIZABLE statement before you run the query.
Correct Answer: G
Reference: http://msdn.microsoft.com/en -us/library/cc645587.aspx


QUESTION 10
You administer several Microsoft SQL Server 2012 database servers. Merge replication has been configured for an
application that is distributed across offices throughout a wide area network (WAN). Many of the tables involved in
replication
use the XML and varchar (max) data types. Occasionally, merge replication fails due to timeout errors.
You need to reduce the occurrence of these timeout errors.
What should you do?
A. Set the Merge agent on the problem subscribers to use the slow link agent profile.
B. Create a snapshot publication, and reconfigure the problem subscribers to use the snapshot publication.
C. Change the Merge agent on the problem subscribers to run continuously.
D. Set the Remote Connection Timeout on the Publisher to 0.
Correct Answer: A
When replication is configured, a set of agent profiles is installed on the Distributor. An agent profile contains a set of
parameters that are used each time an agent runs: each agent logs in to the Distributor during its startup process and
queries for the parameters in its profile. For merge subscriptions that use Web synchronization, profiles are downloaded
and stored at the Subscriber. If the profile is changed, the profile at the Subscriber is updated the next time the Merge
Agent runs. For more information about Web synchronization, see Web Synchronization for Merge Replication.
Replication provides a default profile for each agent and additional predefined profiles for the Log Reader Agent,
Distribution Agent, and Merge Agent. In addition to the profiles provided, you can create profiles suited to your
application requirements. An agent profile allows you to change key parameters easily for all agents associated with that
profile. For example, if you have 20 Snapshot Agents and need to change the query timeout value (the – QueryTimeout
parameter), you can update the profile used by the Snapshot Agents and all agents of that type will begin using the new
value automatically the next time they run. You might also have different profiles for different instances of an agent. For
example, a Merge Agent that connects to the Publisher and Distributor over a dialup connection could use a set of
parameters that are better suited to the slower communications link by using the slow link profile.


QUESTION 11
You administer a Microsoft SQL Server 2012 instance that contains a financial database hosted on a storage area
network (SAN).
The financial database has the following characteristics:
A data file of 2 terabytes is located on a dedicated LUN (drive D). A transaction log of 10 GB is located on a dedicated
LUN (drive E).
Drive D has 1 terabyte of free disk space.
Drive E has 5 GB of free disk space.
The database is continually modified by users during business hours from Monday through Friday between 09:00 hours
and 17:00 hours. Five percent of the existing data is modified each day. The Finance department loads large CSV files
into a number of tables each business day at 11:15 hours and 15:15 hours by using the BCP or BULK INSERT
commands. Each data load adds 3 GB of data to the database. These data load operations must occur in the minimum
amount of
time. A full database backup is performed every Sunday at 10:00 hours. Backup operations will be performed every two
hours (11:00, 13:00, 15:00, and 17:00) during business hours.
You need to ensure that the backup size is as small as possible.
Which backup should you perform every two hours?
A. BULK_LOGGED
B. NO_CHECKSUM
C. FULL
D. RESTART
E. CHECKSUM
F. STANDBY
G. DBO.ONLY
H. NORECOVERY
I. SIMPLE
J. SKIP
K. Transaction log
L. COPY_ONLY
M. Differential
N. CONTINUE_AFTER_ERROR
Correct Answer: K
http://msdn.microsoft.com/en -us/library/ms186865.aspx http://msdn.microsoft.com/en -us/library/ms191429.aspx
http://msdn.microsoft.com/en -us/library/ms179478.aspx


QUESTION 12
You administer a Microsoft SQL Server 2012 instance.
You need to configure a new database to support FILETABLES.
What should you do? Choose all that apply.
A. Disable FILESTREAM on the Database.
B. Enable FILESTREAM on the Server Instance.
C. Configure the Database for Partial Containment.
D. Create a non-empty FILESTREAM file group.
E. Enable Contained Databases on the Server Instance.
F. Set the FILESTREAM directory name on the Database.
Correct Answer: BDF
Reference: http://msdn.microsoft.com/en -us/library/gg509097.aspx


QUESTION 13
Which of the following SQL Server 2012 indexes is ordered independently of the actual physical order of the table data
on which the index is based?
A. CLUSTERED
B. BITMAP
C. NONCLUSTERED
D. IND_ORDERED
Correct Answer: C
https://msdn.microsoft.com/en -us/library/ms188783%28v=sql.110%29.aspx

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Latest effective CompTIA CASP CAS-002 Exam Practice Tests

QUESTION 1
A system administrator needs to develop a policy for when an application server is no longer needed. Which of the
following policies would need to be developed?
A. Backup policy
B. De-provisioning policy
C. Data retention policy
D. Provisioning policy
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 2
A large organization has gone through several mergers, acquisitions, and de-mergers over the past decade. As a result,
the internal networks have been integrated but have complex dependencies and interactions between systems. Better
integration is needed in order to simplify the underlying complexity. Which of the following is the MOST suitable
integration platform to provide event-driven and standards- based secure software architecture?
A. Service oriented architecture (SOA)
B. Federated identities
C. Object request broker (ORB)
D. Enterprise service bus (ESB)
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 3
An administrator notices the following file in the Linux server\\’s /tmp directory.
-rwsr-xr-x. 4 root root 234223 Jun 6 22:52 bash*
Which of the following should be done to prevent further attacks of this nature?
A. Never mount the /tmp directory over NFS
B. Stop the rpcidmapd service from running
C. Mount all tmp directories nosuid, noexec
D. Restrict access to the /tmp directory
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 4
A business wants to start using social media to promote the corporation and to ensure that customers have a good
experience with their products. Which of the following security items should the company have in place before
implementation? (Select TWO).
A. The company must dedicate specific staff to act as social media representatives of the company.
B. All staff needs to be instructed in the proper use of social media in the work environment.
C. Senior staff blogs should be ghost written by marketing professionals.
D. The finance department must provide a cost benefit analysis for social media.
E. The security policy needs to be reviewed to ensure that social media policy is properly implemented.
F. The company should ensure that the company has sufficient bandwidth to allow for social media traffic.
Correct Answer: AE

QUESTION 5
Company XYZ is in negotiations to acquire Company ABC for $1.2millon. Due diligence activities have uncovered
systemic security issues in the flagship product of Company ABC. It has been established that a complete product
rewrite would be needed with average estimates indicating a cost of $1.6millon. Which of the following approaches
should the risk manager of Company XYZ recommend?
A. Transfer the risk
B. Accept the risk
C. Mitigate the risk
D. Avoid the risk
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 6
CORRECT TEXT
An administrator wants to install a patch to an application. Given the scenario, download, verify and install the patch in
the most secure manner.
Instructions: The last install that is completed will be the final submission.leads4pass cas-002 exam question q6 leads4pass cas-002 exam question q6-1Correct Answer:
Review the for full solution of this exam.
In this case the second link should be used (This may vary in actual exam). The first link showed the following error so it
should not be used. leads4pass cas-002 exam question q6-2

Also, Two of the link choices used HTTP and not HTTPS as shown when hovering over the links as shown: leads4pass cas-002 exam question q6-3

Since we need to do this in the most secure manner possible, they should not be used.
Finally, the second link was used and the MD5 utility of MD5sum should be used on the install.exe file as shown. Make
sure that the hash matches. leads4pass cas-002 exam question q6-4Finally, type in install.exe to install it and make sure there are no signature verification errors.

QUESTION 7
An educational institution would like to make computer labs available to remote students. The labs are used for various
IT networking, security, and programming courses. The requirements are:
1.
Each lab must be on a separate network segment.
2.
Labs must have access to the Internet, but not other lab networks.
3.
Student devices must have network access, not simple access to hosts on the lab networks.
4.
Students must have a private certificate installed before gaining access.
5.
Servers must have a private certificate installed locally to provide assurance to the students.
6.
All students must use the same VPN connection profile.
Which of the following components should be used to achieve the design in conjunction with directory services?
A. L2TP VPN over TLS for remote connectivity, SAML for federated authentication, firewalls between each lab segment
B. SSL VPN for remote connectivity, directory services groups for each lab group, ACLs on routing equipment
C. IPSec VPN with mutual authentication for remote connectivity, RADIUS for authentication, ACLs on network
equipment
D. Cloud service remote access tool for remote connectivity, OAuth for authentication, ACL on routing equipment
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 8
The security team for Company XYZ has determined that someone from outside the organization has obtained sensitive
information about the internal organization by querying the external DNS server of the company. The security manager
is tasked with making sure this problem does not occur in the future. How would the security manager address this
problem?
A. Implement a split DNS, only allowing the external DNS server to contain information about domains that only the
outside world should be aware, and an internal DNS server to maintain authoritative records for internal systems.
B. Implement a split DNS, only allowing the external DNS server to contain information about internal domain resources
that the outside world would be interested in, and an internal DNS server to maintain authoritative records for internal
systems.
C. Implement a split DNS, only allowing the external DNS server to contain information about domains that only the
outside world should be aware, and an internal DNS server to maintain non-authoritative records for external systems.
D. Implement a split DNS, only allowing the internal DNS server to contain information about domains the outside world
should be aware of, and an external DNS server to maintain authoritative records for internal systems.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 9
At 9:00 am each morning, all of the virtual desktops in a VDI implementation become extremely slow and/ or
unresponsive. The outage lasts for around 10 minutes, after which everything runs properly again. The administrator
has traced the problem to a lab of thin clients that are all booted at 9:00 am each morning. Which of the following is the
MOST likely cause of the problem and the BEST solution? (Select TWO).
A. Add guests with more memory to increase capacity of the infrastructure.
B. A backup is running on the thin clients at 9am every morning.
C. Install more memory in the thin clients to handle the increased load while booting.
D. Booting all the lab desktops at the same time is creating excessive I/O.
E. Install 10-Gb uplinks between the hosts and the lab to increase network capacity.
F. Install faster SSD drives in the storage system used in the infrastructure.
G. The lab desktops are saturating the network while booting.
H. The lab desktops are using more memory than is available to the host systems.
Correct Answer: DF

QUESTION 10
A system worth $100,000 has an exposure factor of eight percent and an ARO of four. Which of the following figures is
the system\\’s SLE?
A. $2,000
B. $8,000
C. $12,000
D. $32,000
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 11
A security architect is assigned to a major software development project. The software development team has a history
of writing bug prone, inefficient code, with multiple security flaws in every release. The security architect proposes
implementing secure coding standards to the project manager. The secure coding standards will contain detailed
standards for:
A. error handling, input validation, memory use and reuse, race condition handling, commenting, and preventing typical
security problems.
B. error prevention, requirements validation, memory use and reuse, commenting typical security problems, and testing
code standards.
C. error elimination, trash collection, documenting race conditions, peer review, and typical security problems.
D. error handling, input validation, commenting, preventing typical security problems, managing customers, and
documenting extra requirements.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 12
The senior security administrator wants to redesign the company DMZ to minimize the risks associated with both
external and internal threats. The DMZ design must support security in depth, change management and configuration
processes, and support incident reconstruction. Which of the following designs BEST supports the given requirements?
A. A dual firewall DMZ with remote logging where each firewall is managed by a separate administrator.
B. A single firewall DMZ where each firewall interface is managed by a separate administrator and logging to the cloud.
C. A SaaS based firewall which logs to the company\\’s local storage via SSL, and is managed by the change control
team.
D. A virtualized firewall, where each virtual instance is managed by a separate administrator and logging to the same
hardware.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 13
A popular commercial virtualization platform allows for the creation of virtual hardware. To virtual machines, this virtual
hardware is indistinguishable from real hardware. By implementing virtualized TPMs, which of the following trusted
system concepts can be implemented?
A. Software-based root of trust
B. Continuous chain of trust
C. Chain of trust with a hardware root of trust D. Software-based trust anchor with no root of trust
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 14
An organization uses IP address block 203.0.113.0/24 on its internal network. At the border router, the network
administrator sets up rules to deny packets with a source address in this subnet from entering the network, and to deny
packets with a destination address in this subnet from leaving the network. Which of the following is the administrator
attempting to prevent?
A. BGP route hijacking attacks
B. Bogon IP network traffic
C. IP spoofing attacks
D. Man-in-the-middle attacks
E. Amplified DDoS attacks
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 15
A bank provides single sign on services between its internally hosted applications and externally hosted CRM. The
following sequence of events occurs:
1.
The banker accesses the CRM system, a redirect is performed back to the organization\\’s internal systems.
2.
A lookup is performed of the identity and a token is generated, signed and encrypted.
3.
A redirect is performed back to the CRM system with the token.
4.
The CRM system validates the integrity of the payload, extracts the identity and performs a lookup.
5.
If the banker is not in the system and automated provisioning request occurs.
6.
The banker is authenticated and authorized and can access the system. This is an example of which of the following?
A. Service provider initiated SAML 2.0
B. Identity provider initiated SAML 1.0
C. OpenID federated single sign on
D. Service provider initiated SAML 1.1
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 16
The security administrator has just installed an active\passive cluster of two firewalls for enterprise perimeter defense of
the corporate network. Stateful firewall inspection is being used in the firewall implementation. There have been
numerous reports of dropped connections with external clients.
Which of the following is MOST likely the cause of this problem?
A. TCP sessions are traversing one firewall and return traffic is being sent through the secondary firewall and sessions
are being dropped.
B. TCP and UDP sessions are being balanced across both firewalls and connections are being dropped because the
session IDs are not recognized by the secondary firewall.
C. Prioritize UDP traffic and associated stateful UDP session information is traversing the passive firewall causing the
connections to be dropped.
D. The firewall administrator connected a dedicated communication cable between the firewalls in order to share a
single state table across the cluster causing the sessions to be dropped.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 17
An internal committee comprised of the facilities manager, the physical security manager, the network administrator,
and a member of the executive team has been formed to address a recent breach at a company\\’s data center. It was
discovered that during the breach, an HVAC specialist had gained entry to an area that contained server farms holding
sensitive financial data. Although the HVAC specialist was there to fix a legitimate issue, the investigation concluded
security be provided for the two entry and exit points for the server farm. Which of the following should be implemented
to accomplish the recommendations of the investigation?
A. Implement a policy that all non-employees should be escorted in the data center.
B. Place a mantrap at the points with biometric security.
C. Hire an HVAC person for the company, eliminating the need for external HVAC people.
D. Implement CCTV cameras at both points.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 18
A recently hired security administrator is advising developers about the secure integration of a legacy in- house
application with a new cloud based processing system. The systems must exchange large amounts of fixed format data
such as names, addresses, and phone numbers, as well as occasional chunks of data in unpredictable formats. The
developers want to construct a new data format and create custom tools to parse and process the data. The security
administrator instead suggests that the developers:
A. Create a custom standard to define the data.
B. Use well formed standard compliant XML and strict schemas.
C. Only document the data format in the parsing application code.
D. Implement a de facto corporate standard for all analyzed data.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 19
In developing a new computing lifecycle process for a large corporation, the security team is developing the process for
decommissioning computing equipment. In order to reduce the potential for data leakage, which of the following should
the team consider? (Select TWO).
A. Erase all files on drive
B. Install of standard image
C. Remove and hold all drives
D. Physical destruction
E. Drive wipe
Correct Answer: DE

QUESTION 20
An enterprise must ensure that all devices that connect to its networks have been previously approved. The solution
must support dual factor mutual authentication with strong identity assurance. In order to reduce costs and
administrative overhead, the security architect wants to outsource identity proofing and second factor digital delivery to
the third party. Which of the following solutions will address the enterprise requirements?
A. Implementing federated network access with the third party.
B. Using a HSM at the network perimeter to handle network device access.
C. Using a VPN concentrator which supports dual factor via hardware tokens.
D. Implementing 802.1x with EAP-TTLS across the infrastructure.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 21
The helpdesk is receiving multiple calls about slow and intermittent Internet access from the finance department. The
following information is compiled:
Caller 1, IP 172.16.35.217, NETMASK 255.255.254.0
Caller 2, IP 172.16.35.53, NETMASK 255.255.254.0
Caller 3, IP 172.16.35.173, NETMASK 255.255.254.0
All callers are connected to the same switch and are routed by a router with five built-in interfaces. The upstream router
interface\\’s MAC is 00-01-42-32-ab-1a
A packet capture shows the following:
09:05:15.934840 arp reply 172.16.34.1 is-at 00:01:42:32:ab:1a (00:01:42:32:ab:1a)
09:06:16.124850 arp reply 172.16.34.1 is-at 00:01:42:32:ab:1a (00:01:42:32:ab:1a)
09:07:25.439811 arp reply 172.16.34.1 is-at 00:01:42:32:ab:1a (00:01:42:32:ab:1a)
09:08:10.937590 IP 172.16.35.1 > 172.16.35.255: ICMP echo request, id 2305, seq 1, length 65534
09:08:10.937591 IP 172.16.35.1 > 172.16.35.255: ICMP echo request, id 2306, seq 2, length 65534
09:08:10.937592 IP 172.16.35.1 > 172.16.35.255: ICMP echo request, id 2307, seq 3, length 65534
Which of the following is occurring on the network?
A. A man-in-the-middle attack is underway on the network.
B. An ARP flood attack is targeting at the router.
C. The default gateway is being spoofed on the network.
D. A denial of service attack is targeting at the router.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 22
An administrator receives reports that the network is running slow for users connected to a certain switch. Viewing the
network traffic, the administrator reviews the following:
18:51:59.042108 IP linuxwksta.55467 andgt; dns.company.com.domain: 39462+ PTR? 222.17.4.10.in-addr.arpa. (42)
18:51:59.055732 IP dns.company.com.domain andgt; linuxwksta.55467: 39462 NXDomain 0/0/0 (42)
18:51:59.055842 IP linuxwksta.48287 andgt; dns.company.com.domain: 46767+ PTR? 255.19.4.10.in-addr.arpa. (42)
18:51:59.069816 IP dns.company.com.domain andgt; linuxwksta.48287: 46767 NXDomain 0/0/0 (42)
18:51:59.159060 IP linuxwksta.42491 andgt; 10.4.17.72.iscsi-target: Flags [P.], seq 1989625106:1989625154, ack
2067334822, win 1525, options [nop,nop,TS val 16021424 ecr 215646227], length 48
18:51:59.159145 IP linuxwksta.48854 andgt; dns.company.com.domain: 3834+ PTR? 72.17.4.10.in-addr.arpa. (41)
18:51:59.159314 IP 10.4.17.72.iscsi-target andgt; linuxwksta.42491: Flags [P.], seq 1:49, ack 48, win 124, options
[nop,nop,TS val 215647479 ecr 16021424], length 48
18:51:59.159330 IP linuxwksta.42491 andgt; 10.4.17.72.iscsi-target: Flags [.], ack 49, win 1525, options [nop,nop,TS val
16021424 ecr 215647479], length 0
18:51:59.165342 IP dns.company.com.domain andgt; linuxwksta.48854: 3834 NXDomain 0/0/0 (41)
18:51:59.397461 ARP, Request who-has 10.4.16.58 tell 10.4.16.1, length 46
18:51:59.397597 IP linuxwksta.37684 andgt; dns.company.com.domain: 15022+ PTR? 58.16.4.10.in-addr.arpa. (41)
Given the traffic report, which of the following is MOST likely causing the slow traffic?
A. DNS poisoning
B. Improper network zoning
C. ARP poisoning
D. Improper LUN masking
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 23
A penetration tester is assessing a mobile banking application. Man-in-the-middle attempts via a HTTP intercepting
proxy are failing with SSL errors. Which of the following controls has likely been implemented by the developers?
A. SSL certificate revocation
B. SSL certificate pinning
C. Mobile device root-kit detection
D. Extended Validation certificates
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 24
A Chief Financial Officer (CFO) has raised concerns with the Chief Information Security Officer (CISO) because money
has been spent on IT security infrastructure, but corporate assets are still found to be vulnerable. The business recently
funded a patch management product and SOE hardening initiative. A third party auditor reported findings against the
business because some systems were missing patches. Which of the following statements BEST describes this
situation?
A. The CFO is at fault because they are responsible for patching the systems and have already been given patch
management and SOE hardening products.
B. The audit findings are invalid because remedial steps have already been applied to patch servers and the
remediation takes time to complete.
C. The CISO has not selected the correct controls and the audit findings should be assigned to them instead of the
CFO.
D. Security controls are generally never 100% effective and gaps should be explained to stakeholders and managed
accordingly.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 25
There has been a recent security breach which has led to the release of sensitive customer information. As part of
improving security and reducing the disclosure of customer data, a training company has been employed to educate
staff. Which of the following should be the primary focus of the privacy compliance training program?
A. Explain how customer data is gathered, used, disclosed, and managed.
B. Remind staff of the company\\’s data handling policy and have staff sign an NDA.
C. Focus on explaining the “how” and “why” customer data is being collected.
D. Republish the data classification and the confidentiality policy.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 26
To prevent a third party from identifying a specific user as having previously accessed a service provider through an
SSO operation, SAML uses which of the following?
A. Transient identifiers
B. SOAP calls
C. Discovery profiles
D. Security bindings
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 27
A Chief Information Security Officer (CISO) of a major consulting firm has significantly increased the company\\’s
security posture; however, the company is still plagued by data breaches of misplaced assets. These data breaches as
a result have led to the compromise of sensitive corporate and client data on at least 25 occasions. Each employee in
the company is provided a laptop to perform company business. Which of the following actions can the CISO take to
mitigate the breaches?
A. Reload all user laptops with full disk encryption software immediately.
B. Implement full disk encryption on all storage devices the firm owns.
C. Implement new continuous monitoring procedures.
D. Implement an open source system which allows data to be encrypted while processed.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 28
Ann, a systems engineer, is working to identify an unknown node on the corporate network. To begin her investigative
work, she runs the following nmap command string:
user@hostname:~$ sudo nmap -O 192.168.1.54
Based on the output, nmap is unable to identify the OS running on the node, but the following ports are open on the
device:
TCP/22
TCP/111
TCP/512-514
TCP/2049
TCP/32778
Based on this information, which of the following operating systems is MOST likely running on the unknown node?
A. Linux
B. Windows
C. Solaris
D. OSX
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 29
An external auditor has found that IT security policies in the organization are not maintained and in some cases are
nonexistent. As a result of the audit findings, the CISO has been tasked with the objective of establishing a mechanism
to manage the lifecycle of IT security policies. Which of the following can be used to BEST achieve the CISO\\’s
objectives?
A. CoBIT
B. UCF
C. ISO 27002
D. eGRC
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 30
A developer is determining the best way to improve security within the code being developed. The developer is focusing
on input fields where customers enter their credit card details. Which of the following techniques, if implemented in the
code, would be the MOST effective in protecting the fields from malformed input?
A. Client side input validation
B. Stored procedure
C. Encrypting credit card details
D. Regular expression matching
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 31
A completely new class of web-based vulnerabilities has been discovered. Claims have been made that all common
web-based development frameworks are susceptible to attack. Proof-of-concept details have emerged on the Internet. A
security advisor within a company has been asked to provide recommendations on how to respond quickly to these
vulnerabilities. Which of the following BEST describes how the security advisor should respond?
A. Assess the reliability of the information source, likelihood of exploitability, and impact to hosted data. Attempt to
exploit via the proof-of-concept code. Consider remediation options.
B. Hire an independent security consulting agency to perform a penetration test of the web servers. Advise
management of any `high\\’ or `critical\\’ penetration test findings and put forward recommendations for mitigation.
C. Review vulnerability write-ups posted on the Internet. Respond to management with a recommendation to wait until
the news has been independently verified by software vendors providing the web application software.
D. Notify all customers about the threat to their hosted data. Bring the web servers down into “maintenance mode” until
the vulnerability can be reliably mitigated through a vendor patch.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 32
An assessor identifies automated methods for identifying security control compliance through validating sensors at the
endpoint and at Tier 2. Which of the following practices satisfy continuous monitoring of authorized information
systems?
A. Independent verification and validation
B. Security test and evaluation
C. Risk assessment
D. Ongoing authorization
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 33
A developer has implemented a piece of client-side JavaScript code to sanitize a user\\’s provided input to a web page
login screen. The code ensures that only the upper case and lower case letters are entered in the username field, and
that only a 6-digit PIN is entered in the password field. A security administrator is concerned with the following web
server log:
10.235.62.11 — [02/Mar/2014:06:13:04] andquot;GET /site/script.php?user=adminandamp;pass=pass%20or%201=1
HTTP/1.1andquot; 200 5724
Given this log, which of the following is the security administrator concerned with and which fix should be implemented
by the developer?
A. The security administrator is concerned with nonprintable characters being used to gain administrative access, and
the developer should strip all nonprintable characters.
B. The security administrator is concerned with XSS, and the developer should normalize Unicode characters on the
browser side.
C. The security administrator is concerned with SQL injection, and the developer should implement server side input
validation.
D. The security administrator is concerned that someone may log on as the administrator, and the developer should
ensure strong passwords are enforced.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 34
Executive management is asking for a new manufacturing control and workflow automation solution. This application will
facilitate management of proprietary information and closely guarded corporate trade secrets.
The information security team has been a part of the department meetings and come away with the following notes:
-Human resources would like complete access to employee data stored in the application. They would like automated
data interchange with the employee management application, a cloud-based SaaS application.
-Sales is asking for easy order tracking to facilitate feedback to customers.
-Legal is asking for adequate safeguards to protect trade secrets. They are also concerned with data ownership
questions and legal jurisdiction.
-Manufacturing is asking for ease of use. Employees working the assembly line cannot be bothered with additional steps
or overhead. System interaction needs to be quick and easy.
-Quality assurance is concerned about managing the end product and tracking overall performance of the product being
produced. They would like read-only access to the entire workflow process for monitoring and baselining.
The favored solution is a user friendly software application that would be hosted onsite. It has extensive ACL
functionality, but also has readily available APIs for extensibility. It supports read-only access, kiosk automation, custom
fields, and
data encryption.
Which of the following departments\\’ request is in contrast to the favored solution?
A. Manufacturing
B. Legal
C. Sales
D. Quality assurance
E. Human resources
Correct Answer: E

QUESTION 35
VPN users cannot access the active FTP server through the router but can access any server in the data center.
Additional network information:
DMZ network -192.168.5.0/24 (FTP server is 192.168.5.11)
VPN network -192.168.1.0/24
Datacenter -192.168.2.0/24
User network – 192.168.3.0/24
HR network -192.168.4.0/24\
Traffic shaper configuration:
VLAN Bandwidth Limit (Mbps)
VPN50
User175
HR250
Finance250
Guest0
Router ACL:
ActionSourceDestination
Permit192.168.1.0/24192.168.2.0/24
Permit192.168.1.0/24192.168.3.0/24
Permit192.168.1.0/24192.168.5.0/24
Permit192.168.2.0/24192.168.1.0/24
Permit192.168.3.0/24192.168.1.0/24
Permit192.168.5.1/32192.168.1.0/24
Deny192.168.4.0/24192.168.1.0/24
Deny192.168.1.0/24192.168.4.0/24
Denyanyany
Which of the following solutions would allow the users to access the active FTP server?
A. Add a permit statement to allow traffic from 192.168.5.0/24 to the VPN network
B. Add a permit statement to allow traffic to 192.168.5.1 from the VPN network
C. IPS is blocking traffic and needs to be reconfigured
D. Configure the traffic shaper to limit DMZ traffic
E. Increase bandwidth limit on the VPN network
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 36
A growing corporation is responding to the needs of its employees to access corporate email and other resources while
traveling. The company is implementing remote access for company laptops. Which of the following security systems
should be implemented for remote access? (Select TWO).
A. Virtual Private Network
B. Secure Sockets Layer for web servers
C. Network monitoring
D. Multifactor authentication for users
E. Full disk encryption
F. Intrusion detection systems
Correct Answer: AD

QUESTION 37
A large financial company has a team of security-focused architects and designers that contribute into broader IT
architecture and design solutions. Concerns have been raised due to the security contributions having varying levels of
quality and consistency. It has been agreed that a more formalized methodology is needed that can take business
drivers, capabilities, baselines, and re-usable patterns into account. Which of the following would BEST help to achieve
these objectives?
A. Construct a library of re-usable security patterns
B. Construct a security control library
C. Introduce an ESA framework
D. Include SRTM in the SDLC
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 38
A security consultant is conducting a network assessment and wishes to discover any legacy backup Internet
connections the network may have. Where would the consultant find this information and why would it be valuable?
A. This information can be found in global routing tables, and is valuable because backup connections typically do not
have perimeter protection as strong as the primary connection.
B. This information can be found by calling the regional Internet registry, and is valuable because backup connections
typically do not require VPN access to the network.
C. This information can be found by accessing telecom billing records, and is valuable because backup connections
typically have much lower latency than primary connections.
D. This information can be found by querying the network\\’s DNS servers, and is valuable because backup DNS
servers typically allow recursive queries from Internet hosts.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 39
A Security Manager is part of a team selecting web conferencing systems for internal use. The system will only be used
for internal employee collaboration. Which of the following are the MAIN concerns of the security manager? (Select
THREE).
A. Security of data storage
B. The cost of the solution
C. System availability
D. User authentication strategy
E. PBX integration of the service
F. Operating system compatibility
Correct Answer: ACD

QUESTION 40
Company policy requires that all company laptops meet the following baseline requirements: Software requirements:
Antivirus Anti-malware Anti-spyware Log monitoring Full-disk encryption Terminal services enabled for RDP
Administrative access for local users
Hardware restrictions: Bluetooth disabled FireWire disabled WiFi adapter disabled Ann, a web developer, reports
performance issues with her laptop and is not able to access any network resources. After further investigation, a bootkit
was discovered and it was trying to access external websites. Which of the following
hardening techniques should be applied to mitigate this specific issue from reoccurring? (Select TWO).
A. Group policy to limit web access
B. Restrict VPN access for all mobile users
C. Remove full-disk encryption
D. Remove administrative access to local users
E. Restrict/disable TELNET access to network resources
F. Perform vulnerability scanning on a daily basis
G. Restrict/disable USB access
Correct Answer: DG

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