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Use the Latest 700-755 dumps to help you pass the Cisco SBTO certification exam (2)

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Cisco 700-755 Exam Questions and Answers (2)

Number of exam questions	Exam name	Exam code	Last updated
15	Cisco Small Business Technical Overview	700-755	700-755 dumps

Question 1:

When enabled which two features will help extend the retention capacity of the Meraki MV smart cameras? (Choose two)

A. Direct stream-based retention

B. Schedule-based retention

C. Hybrid archives

D. Cloud archives

E. Motion-based retention

Correct Answer: BE

Question 2:

In which two ways can the Cisco Catalyst 1000 series of switches be managed? (Choose two )

A. Command-Line Interface

B. Mobile App

C. Cisco Prime

D. Cloud Managed E. On-box web Ul

Correct Answer: AE

Question 3:

Which approach describes the high-velocity Cisco Meraki sales cycle?

A. POC, QandA. Rollout

B. Compete Pilot, Support

C. Discover Design Demo

D. See, Try, Buy

Correct Answer: D

Question 4:

Which Cisco-designed portfolio solution is best for a business of 50 users or less?

A. Meraki MX

B. Meraki Go

C. Firepower 10-10

D. Cisco Umbrella

E. Cisco AnyConnect

Correct Answer: B

Question 5:

Which Cisco RV model supports Umbrella integration?

A. RV160W

B. RV340

C. RV260P

D. RV260

Correct Answer: B

Question 6:

What is the built-in technology on the MR platform that utilizes one-way beacon advertising to interact with applications?

A. Adaptive Radio Management

B. BLE (Bluetooth Low Energy)

C. BeamFlex

D. Radio Resource Management

Correct Answer: B

Question 7:

What are two customer benefits of Cisco Catalyst SMB switches? (Choose two )

A. logical upgrade and replacement for the Cisco Catalyst 2960-Plus. at the same price point

B. built for large-scale deployments

C. contains advanced encryption functionality

D. niche business functionality

E. cool, quiet fan-less design ideal for labs open spaces, and the workplace

Correct Answer: CE

Question 8:

Which two Cisco Small Business series switches are smart-managed? (Choose two.)

A. 220

B. 250

C. 550X

D. 350X

E. 110

Correct Answer: AB

Question 9:

Which two security tools allow administrators to maximize the security of their Dashboard management accounts? (Choose two )

A. Role-based administration

B. Local (direct) access-only policies

C. Two-factor authentication

D. Biometric authentication

E. Captcha challenge-response tests

Correct Answer: AC

Question 10:

On which Cisco Small Business switch series is Smart Network Application (SNA) available?

A. the 550X series switch

B. only the 350X series switch not the 350 series

C. the 110 series switch

D. all 200 series switches

Correct Answer: A

Question 11:

What is the behavior of Cisco AMP for Endpoints?

A. the top ten significant compromises are prominently displayed in the console

B. security compromises are graphically shown and color-coded by the device

C. prevents threats at the point of entry D. allows a user to categorize events and endpoints by infection time

Correct Answer: C

Question 12:

What are the two Meraki licensing models for organizations? (Choose two )

A. Cloud Dashboard licensing

B. Per-device licensing

C. Advanced Security licensing

D. Co-termination licensing

E. Enterprise Network licensing

Correct Answer: BD

Question 13:

What is the easiest way to extend WiFi coverage and capacity?

A. Cisco Business Wireless Mesh Extender

B. Wireless Access Point

C. Umbrella DNS

D. Cisco Business Dashboard

Correct Answer: A

Question 14:

Which two firewalls form part of Cisco\’s SMB offering? (Choose two ) A. Cisco Firepower 1000

B. Cisco ISA

C. Cisco ISE

D. Cisco ASAv

E. Cisco Meraki MX

Correct Answer: AE

Question 15:

What are two network-wide features that should be included in a Cisco Meraki full-stack demo? (Choose two )

A. Summary Report

B. CMX Location Analytics

C. L3 Scalability

D. Network Topology

E. Cisco AMP

Correct Answer: AD

…

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[Update Dec 2022] Latest 300-430 dumps Certification Exam Best Materials

admin December 8, 2022

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Number of exam questions	Exam name	From	Release time	Last updated
15	Implementing Cisco Enterprise Wireless Networks (ENWLSI)	leads4pass	Dec 08, 2022	300-430 dumps

New Question 1:

An engineer is responsible for a wireless network for an enterprise. The enterprise has distributed offices around the globe, and all APs are configured in FlexConnect mode. The network must be configured to support 802.11r and CCKM. What needs to be implemented to accomplish this goal?

A. Enable VLAN-based central switching.

B. Enable FlexConnect local authentication.

C. Enable FlexConnect local switching.

D. Create FlexConnect groups.

Correct Answer: D

New Question 2:

What is the default IEEE 802.1x AP authentication configuration on a Cisco Catalyst 9800 Series Wireless Controller?

A. EAP-PEAP with 802.1x port authentication

B. EAP-TLS with 802.1x port authentication

C. EAP-FAST with CAPWAP DTLS + port authentication

D. EAP-FAST with CAPWAP DTLS

Correct Answer: C

https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/wireless/controller/ewc/1612/configguide/ewc_cg_16_12/802_1x_support.pdf

New Question 3:

An engineer wants to configure WebEx to adjust the precedence and override the QoS profile on the WLAN. Which configuration is needed to complete this task?

A. Change the WLAN reserved bandwidth for WebEx

B. Create an AVC profile for WebEx

C. Create an ACL for WebEx

D. Change the AVC application WebEx-app-sharing to mark

Correct Answer: D

https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/wireless/controller/technotes/7-5/AVC_dg7point5.html

New Question 4:

The IT manager is asking the wireless team to get a report for all guest user associations during the past two weeks. In which two formats can Cisco Prime save this report? (Choose two.)

A. CSV

B. PDF

C. XLS

D. DOC

E. plain text

Correct Answer: AB

New Question 5:

What is an important consideration when implementing a dual SSID design for BYOD?

A. After using the provisioning SSID, an ACL that is used to make the client switch SSIDs forces the user to associate and traverse the network by MAC filtering.

B. If multiple WLCs are used, the WLAN IDs must be exact for the clients to be provisioned and traverse the network correctly.

C. SSIDs for this setup must be configured with NAC State-RADIUS NAC for the clients to authenticate with Cisco ISE, or with NAC State-ISE NAC for Cisco ISE to associate with the client.

D. One SSID is for provisioning and the other SSID is for gaining access to the network. The use of an ACL should not be enforced to make the client connect to the REAL SSID after provisioning.

Correct Answer: D

New Question 6:

For security purposes, an engineer enables CPU ACL and chooses an ACL on the Security > Access Control Lists > CPU Access Control Lists menu. Which kind of traffic does this change apply to, as soon as the change is made?

A. wireless traffic only

B. wired traffic only

C. VPN traffic

D. wireless and wired traffic

Correct Answer: D

New Question 7:

A healthcare organization notices many rogue APs and is concerned about a honeypot attack.

Which configuration must a wireless network engineer perform in Cisco Prime Infrastructure to prevent these attacks most efficiently upon detection?

A. Set the auto containment level to 0 and select the Ad Hoc Rogue AP containment option.

B. Set the auto containment level to 0 and select the Using Our SSID containment option

C. Set the manual containment level to 4 and select the Ad Hoc Rogue AP containment option.

D. Set the auto containment level to 4 and select the Using Our SSID containment option.

Correct Answer: C

New Question 8:

A company has a single WLAN configured for 802.1x authentication with the QoS set to Silver. This WLAN supports all corporate and BYOD access. A decision has been made to allow users to install Cisco Jabber on their personal mobile devices. Users report poor voice quality when using Jabber.

QoS is being applied only as a best effort. What must be configured to ensure that the WLAN remains on the Silver class and to ensure the Platinum class for Jabber?

A. Configure an AVC profile for the Jabber traffic and apply it to the WLAN.

B. Configure the WLAN to broadcast on 5 GHz radios only and allow Jabber users to con.

C. Enable Cisco Centralized Key Management on the WLAN so that the Jabber-enabled devices will connect.

D. Configure QoS on the mobile devices that have Jabber installed.

Correct Answer: A

https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/wireless/controller/technotes/81/Jabber_in_WLAN/b_Jabber_in_WLAN.html#reference_7B4539C91FBE4639ACF906F6F3931667

New Question 9:

A wireless engineer needs to implement client tracking. Which method does the angle of arrival use to determine the location of a wireless device?

A. received signal strength

B. triangulation

C. time distance of arrival

D. angle of incidence

Correct Answer: D

New Question 10:

After looking in the logs, an engineer notices that RRM keeps changing the channels for non-IEEE 802. 11 interferers. After surveying the area, it has been decided that RRM should not change the channel. Which feature must be enabled to ignore non-802.11 interference?

A. Avoid Cisco AP Load

B. Avoid Persistent Non-WIFI Interference

C. Avoid Foreign AP Interference

D. Avoid Non-802. 11 Noise

Correct Answer: B

Check the Avoid Non-802.11a (802.11b) Noise check box to cause the controller\’s RRM algorithms to consider noise (non-802.11 traffic) in the channel when assigning channels to lightweight access points, or uncheck it to disable this feature. For example, RRM may have access points to avoid channels with significant interference from nonaccess point sources, such as microwave ovens.

The default value is selected. Check the Avoid Persistent Non-WiFi Interference check box to configure the controller to stop ignoring persistent non-Wi-Fi interference in new channel calculation. The persistent non-Wi-Fi interference is considered during the metric calculation for channels.

https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/wireless/controller/9800/configure-guide/b_wi_16_10_cg/radio-resource-management.html

https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/wireless/controller/8-6/config-guide/b_cg86/radio_resource_management.html

New Question 11:

What is the default NMSP echo interval between Cisco MSE and a Wireless LAN Controller?

A. 10 seconds

B. 15 seconds

C. 30 seconds

D. 60 seconds

Correct Answer: B

New Question 12:

What must be configured on ISE version 2.1 BYOD when using Single SSID?

A. no authentication

B. WPA2

C. open authentication

D. 802.1x

Correct Answer: D

https://ciscocustomer.lookbookhq.com/iseguidedjourney/BYOD-configuration

New Question 13:

A customer has a distributed wireless deployment model where the WLCs are located in the data centers. Because the file servers are located in the data center, the traffic from the corporate WLAN “Corp-401266017” must go through the controllers, where the guest WLAN “Guest-19283746” traffic must use the local Internet line installed in each office. Which configuration will accomplish this task?

A. Disable Local Switching for the corporate and guest WLAN.

B. Disable Local Switching for the corporate WLAN and enable it for the guest WLAN.

C. Enable Local Switching for the corporate and guest WLAN.

D. Enable Local Switching for the corporate WLAN and disable it for the guest WLAN.

Correct Answer: C

New Question 14:

An engineer configured a Cisco AireOS controller with two TACACS+ servers. The engineer notices that when the primary TACACS+ server fails, the WLC starts using the secondary server as expected, but the WLC does not use the primary

server again until the secondary server fails or the controller is rebooted.

Which cause of this issue is true?

A. Fallback is enabled

B. Fallback is disabled

C. DNS query is disabled

D. DNS query is enabled

Correct Answer: B

New Question 15:

Which QoS level is recommended for guest services?

A. gold

B. bronze

C. platinum

D. silver

Correct Answer: B

…

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admin December 2, 2022

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Number of exam questions	Exam name	From	Release time	Last updated
15	Implementing and Operating Cisco Enterprise Network Core Technologies (ENCOR)	leads4pass	Dec 02, 2022	350-401 dumps

New Question 1:

Which Python code snippet must be added to the script to save the returned configuration as a JSON-formatted file?

A. with open(“ifaces.json”, “w”) as OutFile: OutFile.write(Response. text)

B. with open(“ifaces.json”, “w”) as OutFile: OutFile.write(Response.json())

C. with open(“ifaces.json”, “w”) as OutFile: JSONResponse = JSON.loads(Response.text) OutFile.write(JSONResponse)

D. with open(“ifaces.json”, “w”) as OutFile: OutFile.write(Response)

Correct Answer: B

The JSON() method of the Response interface takes a Response stream and reads it to completion. It returns a promise which resolves with the result of parsing the body text as JSON.

New Question 2:

Refer to the exhibit.

Which configuration must be implemented to establish EBGP peering between R1 and R2?

A. Option A

B. Option B

C. Option C

D. Option D

Correct Answer: A

New Question 3:

An engineer must configure HSRP group 300 on a Cisco IOS router. When the router is functional, it must be the active HSRP router

The peer router has been configured using the default priority value.

Which three commands are required? (Choose three.)

A. standby 300 timers 1 110

B. standby 300 priority 90

C. standby 300 priority 110

D. standby version 2

E. standby 300 preempt

F. standby version 1

Correct Answer: CDE

New Question 4:

What are the differences between TCAM and the MAC address table?

A. The MAC address table is contained in CAM ACL and QoS information is stored in TCAM

B. The MAC address table supports partial matches. TCAM requires an exact match

C. Router prefix lookups happen in CAM. MAC address table lookups happen in TCAM.

D. TCAM is used to make Layer 2 forwarding decisions CAM is used to build routing tables

Correct Answer: A

https://community.cisco.com/t5/networking-documents/cam-content-addressable-memory-vs-tcam-ternarycontent/ta-p/3107938

When using Ternary Content Addressable Memory (TCAM) inside routers it\’s used for faster address lookup that enables fast routing. In switches Content, Addressable Memory (CAM) is used for building and lookup of mac address table that enables L2 forwarding decisions. Besides Longest-Prefix Matching, TCAM in today\’s routers and multilayer Switch devices are used to store ACL, QoS, and other things from upper-layer processing.

New Question 5:

Which two actions, when applied in the LAN network segment, will facilitate Layer 3 CAPWAP discovery for lightweight AP? (Choose two.)

A. Utilize DHCP option 17.

B. Configure the WLC IP address on the LAN switch.

C. Utilize DHCP option 43.

D. Configure an IP helper address on the router interface

E. Enable port security on the switch port

Correct Answer: CD

In a Cisco Unified Wireless network, the LAPs must first discover and join a WLC before they can service wireless clients.

However, this presents a question: how did the LAPs find the management IP address of the controller when it is on a different subnet?

If you do not tell the LAP where the controller is via DHCP option 43, DNS resolution of “Cisco-capwapcontroller.local_domain”, or statically configure it, the LAP does not know where in the network to find the management interface of the controller.

Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/support/docs/wireless/5500-series-wireless-controllers/119286lap-notjoin-wlc-tshoot.html

New Question 6:

CORRECT TEXT

BGP connectivity exists between Headquarters and both remote sites; however, Remote Site 1 cannot communicate with Remote Site 2. Configure BGP according to the topology to goals:

1.

Configure R1 and R3 under the BGP process to provide reachability between Remote Site 1 and Remote Site 2. No configuration changes are permitted on R2.

2.

Ensure that the /32 networks at Remote Site 1 and Remote Site 2 can ping each other.

R1

R3

A. See the solution below in Explanation-

B. Place Holder

C. Place Holder

D. Place Holder

Correct Answer: A

Solution:

On R1:

R1(config)#router BGP 123

R1(config-router)#address-family ipv4

R1(config-router-af)#neighbor 10.0.0.2 allows-in

On R3:

R3(config)#router bgp 123

R3(config-router)# address-family ipv4

R3(config-router-af)#neighbor 192.168.1.2 allows-in VERIFICATION:

R3#sh IP route BGP

The gateway of last resort is not set

1.0.0.0/32 is subnetted, 1 subnet

B 1.1.1.1 [20/0] via 192.168.1.2, 00:01:17

2.0.0.0/32 is subnetted, 1 subnet

B 2.2.2.2 [20/0] via 192.168.1.2, 00:05:06

10.0.0.0/24 is subnetted, 1 subnet

B 10.0.0.0 [20/0] via 192.168.1.2, 00:01:17

Test Ping from R3 to R1:

R3#ping 1.1.1.1

Type escape sequence to abort.

Sending 5, 100-byte ICMP Echos to 1.1.1.1, timeout is 2 seconds:

!!!!!

R3#ping 1.1.1.1 source lo0

Type escape sequence to abort.

Sending 5, 100-byte ICMP Echos to 1.1.1.1, timeout is 2 seconds:

A packet sent with a source address of 3.3.3.3

!!!!!

Success rate is 100 percent (5/5), round-trip min/avg/max = 1/1/1 ms

New Question 7:

How does CEF switching differ from process switching on Cisco devices?

A. CEF switching saves memory by sorting adjacency tables in dedicated memory on the line cards, and process switching stores all tables in the main memory

B. CEF switching uses adjacency tables built by the CDP protocol, and process switching uses the routing table

C. CEF switching uses dedicated hardware processors, and process switching uses the main processor

D. CEF switching uses a proprietary protocol based on IS-IS for MAC address lookup, and process switching uses in MAC address table

Correct Answer: B

Cisco Express Forwarding (CEF) switching is a proprietary form of scalable switching intended to tackle the problems associated with demand caching.

With CEF switching, the information which is conventionally stored in a route cache is split up over several data structures.

The CEF code is able to maintain these data structures in the Gigabit Route Processor (GRP), and also in slave processors such as the line cards in the 12000 routers.

The data structures that provide optimized lookup for efficient packet forwarding include:

1.

The Forwarding Information Base (FIB) table – CEF uses a FIB to make IP destination prefix-based switching decisions. The FIB is conceptually similar to a routing table or information base. It maintains a mirror image of the forwarding information contained in the IP routing table. When routing or topology changes occur in the network, the IP routing table is updated, and these changes are reflected in the FIB. The FIB maintains next-hop address information based on the information in the IP routing table.

2.

Because there is a one-to-one correlation between FIB entries and routing table entries, the FIB contains all known routes and eliminates the need for route cache maintenance that is associated with switching paths such as fast switching and optimum switching.

3.

Adjacency table – Nodes in the network are said to be adjacent if they can reach each other with a single hop across a link layer. In addition to the FIB, CEF uses adjacency tables to prepend Layer 2 addressing information. The adjacency table maintains Layer 2 next-hop addresses for all FIB entries.

CEF can be enabled in one of two modes:

1.

Central CEF mode – When CEF mode is enabled, the CEF FIB and adjacency tables reside on the route processor, and the route processor performs the express forwarding. You can use CEF mode when line cards are not available for CEF switching, or when you need to use features not compatible with distributed CEF switching.

2.

Distributed CEF (dCEF) mode – When dCEF is enabled, line cards maintain identical copies of the FIB and adjacency tables. The line cards can perform the express forwarding by themselves, relieving the main processor – Gigabit Route Processor (GRP) – of involvement in the switching operation. This is the only switching method available on the Cisco 12000 Series Router.

CEF uses an Inter-Process Communication (IPC) mechanism to ensure the synchronization of FIBs and adjacency tables on the route processor and line cards.

For more information about CEF switching, see Cisco Express Forwarding (CEF) White Paper.

New Question 8:

What function does vxlan perform in an SD-Access deployment?

A. policy plan forwarding

B. control plane forwarding

C. data plane forwarding

D. systems management and orchestration

Correct Answer: C

New Question 9:

An engineer must configure the strongest password authentication to locally authenticate on a router. Which configuration must be used?

A. username netadmin secret 5 $1$b1JUSkZbBS1Pyh4OzwXyZ1kSZ2

B. username netadmin secret $15b1JuSk404850110QzwXyZ1k SZ2

C. line Console 0 password $15b1Ju$

D. username netadmin secret 9 $9$vFpMfBelbRVV8SseX/bDAxtuV

Correct Answer: D

Scrypt is safer than MD5, so answer A is wrong and answer D is correct

R1(config)#username user secret 0 Specifies an UNENCRYPTED secret will follow5 Specifies an MD5 HASHED secret will follow8 Specifies a PBKDF2 HASHED secret will follow9 Specifies a SCRYPT HASHED secret will follow<0-9> Encryption types not explicitly specifiedLINE The UNENCRYPTED (cleartext) user secretLINE The UNENCRYPTED (cleartext) user secret

New Question 10:

DRAG DROP

Drag and drop the snippets onto the blanks within the code to construct a script that advertises the network prefox 192.168.5.0 session. Not all options are used.

Select and Place:

Correct Answer:

New Question 11:

A network engineer is configuring Flexible Netflow and enters these commands:

Sampler Netflow1 Mode random one-out-of 100 Interface fastethernet 1/0 Flow-sampler netflow1

Which are two results of implementing this feature instead of traditional Netflow? (Choose two.)

A. CPU and memory utilization are reduced.

B. Only the flows of top 100 talkers are exported

C. The data export flow is more secure.

D. The number of packets to be analyzed are reduced

E. The accuracy of the data to be analyzed is improved

Correct Answer: AD

New Question 12:

Which benefit is offered by a cloud infrastructure deployment but is lacking in an on-premises deployment?

A. efficient scalability

B. virtualization

C. storage capacity

D. supported systems

Correct Answer: A

New Question 13:

What are two device roles in Cisco SD-Access fabric? (Choose two.)

A. core switch

B. vBond controller

C. edge node

D. access switch

E. border node

Correct Answer: CE

There are five basic device roles in the fabric overlay:

+

Control plane node: This node contains the settings, protocols, and mapping tables to provide the endpoint-to-location (EID-to-RLOC) mapping system for the fabric overlay. + Fabric border node: This fabric device (for example, core layer device) connects external Layer 3 networks to the SDA fabric.

+

Fabric edge node: This fabric device (for example, access or distribution layer device) connects wired endpoints to the SDA fabric.

+

Fabric WLAN controller (WLC): This fabric device connects APs and wireless endpoints to the SDA fabric.

+

Intermediate nodes: These are intermediate routers or extended switches that do not provide any sort of SD-Access fabric role other than underlay services.

New Question 14:

What is a fact about Cisco EAP-FAST?

A. It does not require a RADIUS server certificate.

B. It requires a client certificate.

C. It is an IETF standard.

D. It operates in transparent mode.

Correct Answer: A

https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/support/docs/wireless-mobility/wireless-fixed/72788-CSSC-DeploymentGuide.html

New Question 15:

Refer to the exhibit. What is displayed when the code is run?

A. The answer is 25

B. The answer is 70

C. The answer is 5

D. The answer is 100

Correct Answer: A

The “magic” function receives a number, which is 5 from the main() in this question. This function returns a result of 5 + 2*10 = 25 and the str() function converts it into a string (“25”) before printing to the terminal.

…

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[Updated Nov 30, 2022] New 300-415 dumps: 300-415 ENSDWI Exam Prep

admin November 30, 2022

The Nov 2022 leads4pass 300-415 dumps have been updated with 227 exam questions. The complete 300-415 exam questions are available in both PDF and VCE formats, We collectively call 300-415 dumps: https://www.leads4pass.com/300-415.html. Use the latest 300-415 dumps to prepare for passing the 300-415 ENSDWI exam and ensure 100% success in passing the exam.

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Read a portion of the free 300-415 Dumps exam questions and answers online

Number of exam questions	Exam name	From	Release time	Latest updated
15	Implementing Cisco SD-WAN Solutions (ENSDWI)	leads4pass	Nov 30, 2022	300-415 dumps

New Question 1:

Refer to the exhibit.

A network administrator is configuring OMP in vManage to advertise all the paths for the same prefix from a site that has two WAN Edge devices Each WAN Edge device is connected to three ISPs and two private MPLS transports. What is the minimum value for \’ Number of Paths advertised per Prefix” that should be configured?

A. 2

B. 3

C. 5

D. 10

Correct Answer: D

New Question 2:

A network administrator is configuring QoS on a Vedge 5000 router and needs to enable it on the transport side interface. Which policy setting must be selected to accomplish this goal?

A. Cloud QoS Service side

B. Cloud QoS

C. Netflow

D. Application

Correct Answer: B

New Question 3:

What is a requirement for a WAN Edge to reach vManage, vBond, and vSmart controllers in a data center?

A. OMP

B. IGP

C. QoS

D. TLS

Correct Answer: B

https://www.cisco.com/c/dam/en/us/td/docs/solutions/CVD/SDWAN/sdwan-wan-edge-onboarding-deploy-guide-2020nov.pdf

New Question 4:

Which logs verify when a device was upgraded?

A. ACL

B. Email

C. SNMP

D. Audit

Correct Answer: D

Reference: https://sdwan-docs.cisco.com/Product_Documentation/vManage_Help/Release_18.4/Monitor/Audit_Log

New Question 5:

In a Cisco SD-WAN network, which component is responsible for distributing route and policy information via the OMP?

A. vManage

B. vSmart Controler

C. vBond Orchestrator

D. WAN Edge Router

Correct Answer: B

New Question 6:

An engineer is configuring a data policy for packets that must be captured through the policy. Which command accomplishes this task?

A. policy > data-policy > VPN-list > sequence > default-action > drop

B. policy > data-policy > VPN-list > sequence > action

C. policy > data-policy > VPN-list > sequence > default-action > accept

D. policy > data-policy > VPN-list > sequence > match

Correct Answer: B

https://www.cisco.com/c/dam/en/us/td/docs/routers/sdwan/configuration/config-18-4.pdf#page=357

New Question 7:

DRAG DROP

Drag and drop the attributes from the left that make each transport location unique onto the right.

Not all options are used.

Select and Place:

Correct Answer:

New Question 8:

DRAG DROP

Drag and drop the vManage policy configuration procedures from the left onto the correct definitions on the right.

Select and Place:

Correct Answer:

Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/routers/sdwan/configuration/policies/vedge/policies-book/data-policies.html

New Question 9:

Which protocol is used to measure the loss, latency, jitter, and liveliness of the tunnel between WAN Edge router peers?

A. OMP

B. NetFlow

C. BFD

D. IP SLA

Correct Answer: C

Reference: https://www.ciscolive.com/c/dam/r/ciscolive/emea/docs/2019/pdf/TECCRS-2014.pdf

New Question 10:

An engineer is tasked to improve throughput for connection-oriented traffic by decreasing round-trip latency Which configuration will achieve this goal?

A. turn on “Enable TCP Optimization”

B. turn off “Enhance ECMP Keying”

C. turn off “Enable TCP Optimization”

D. turn on “Enhance ECMP Keying”

Correct Answer: A

https://www.cisco.com/c/dam/en/us/td/docs/routers/sdwan/configuration/config-18-2.pdf#page=530

New Question 11:

Which two services are critical for zero-touch provisioning onboarding? (Choose two)

A. EMAIL

B. SNMP

C. AAA

D. DHCP

E. DNS

Correct Answer: DE

New Question 12:

Which API call retrieves a list of all devices in the network?

A. https://vmanage_IP_address/dataservice/system/device/{{model}}

B. http://vmanage_IP_address/dataservice/system/device/{{model}}

C. http://vmanage_IP_address/api-call/system/device/{{model}}

D. https://vmanage_IP_address/api-call/system/device/{{model}}

Correct Answer: A

Reference:

https://sdwan-docs.cisco.com/Product_Documentation/Command_Reference/Command_Reference/vManage_REST_APIs/ vManage_REST_APIs_Overview/Using_the_vManage_REST_APIs

New Question 13:

Refer to the exhibit.

A network administrator is setting the queueing value for voice traffic for one of the WAN Edge routers using vManager GUI. Which queue value be set to accomplish this task?

A. 0

B. 1

C. 2

D. 3

Correct Answer: A

Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/support/docs/routers/vedge-router/213408-implement-qos-in-cisco-sd-wan.html

New Question 14:

In Cisco SD-WAN, what protocol is used for controlling connections between SD-WAN devices?

A. BGP

B. OSPF

C. DTLS

D. OMP

Correct Answer: D

https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/routers/sdwan/configuration/security/vedge/security-book/security-overview.html

New Question 15:

DRAG DROP

Drag and drop the components from the left onto the corresponding Cisco NFV infrastructure Building Blocks on the right. Not all options are used.

Select and Place:

Correct Answer:

…

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[Update Nov 2022] CyberOps Professional 300-215 dumps with PDF and VCE

admin November 17, 2022

New updated CyberOps Professional 300-215 dumps with the PDF download file and VCE mock exam engine, 59 newly updated exam questions, and answers, verified by CyberOps Professional experts to ensure validity.

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Number of exam questions	Exam name	From	Release time	PDF Download
15	Conducting Forensic Analysis and Incident Response Using Cisco Technologies for CyberOps ( 300-215 CBRFIR )	leads4pass	Nov 17, 2022	300-215 PDF

NEW QUESTION 1:

An engineer is investigating a ticket from the accounting department in which a user discovered an
unexpected application on their workstation. Several alerts are seen from the intrusion detection system of unknown outgoing internet traffic from this workstation. The engineer also notices a degraded processing capability, which complicates the analysis process. Which two actions should the engineer take? (Choose two.)

A. Restore to a system recovery point.
B. Replace the faulty CPU.
C. Disconnect from the network.
D. Format the workstation drives.
E. Take an image of the workstation.

Verify answer

NEW QUESTION 2:

Refer to the exhibit. A network engineer is analyzing a Wireshark file to determine the HTTP request that
caused the initial Ursnif banking Trojan binary to download. Which filter did the engineer apply to sort the
Wireshark traffic logs?

A. HTTP. request.un matches
B. tls. handshake.type ==1
C. TCP. port eq 25
D. TCP. window_size ==0

Verify answer

Reference:
https://www.malware-traffic-analysis.net/2018/11/08/index.html
https://unit42.paloaltonetworks.com/wireshark-tutorial-examining-ursnif-infections/

NEW QUESTION 3:

What is the transmogrify anti-forensics technique?

A. hiding a section of a malicious file in unused areas of a file
B. sending malicious files over a public network by encapsulation
C. concealing malicious files in ordinary or unsuspecting places
D. changing the file header of a malicious file to another file type

Verify answer

Reference:
https://www.csoonline.com/article/2122329/the-rise-of-anti-forensics.html#:~:text=Transmogrify%20is%
20similarly%20wise%20to,a%20file%20from%2C%20say%2C%20.

NEW QUESTION 4:

A security team receives reports of multiple files causing suspicious activity on users’ workstations. The file attempted to access highly confidential information in a centralized file server. Which two actions should be taken by a security analyst to evaluate the file in a sandbox? (Choose two.)

A. Inspect registry entries
B. Inspect processes.
C. Inspect file hash.
D. Inspect file type.
E. Inspect PE header.

Verify answer

Reference: https://medium.com/@Flying_glasses/top-5-ways-to-detect-malicious-file-manually-
d02744f7c43a

NEW QUESTION 5:

A security team detected an above-average amount of inbound TCP/135 connection attempts from
unidentified senders. The security team is responding based on their incident response playbook. Which
two elements are part of the eradication phase for this incident? (Choose two.)

A. anti-malware software
B. data and workload isolation
C. centralized user management
D. intrusion prevention system
E. enterprise block listing solution

Verify answer

NEW QUESTION 6:

Refer to the exhibit. Which type of code is being used?

A. Shell
B. VBScript
C. BASH
D. Python

Verify answer

NEW QUESTION 7:

What is the goal of an incident response plan?

A. to identify critical systems and resources in an organization
B. to ensure systems are in place to prevent an attack
C. to determine security weaknesses and recommend solutions
D. to contain an attack and prevent it from spreading

Verify answer

Reference: https://www.forcepoint.com/cyber-edu/incident-response

NEW QUESTION 8:

An employee receives an email from a “trusted” person containing a hyperlink that is malvertising. The employee clicks the link and the malware downloads. An information analyst observes an alert at the SIEM and engages the cybersecurity team to conduct an analysis of this incident in accordance with the incident response plan. Which event detail should be included in this root cause analysis?

A. phishing email sent to the victim
B. alarm raised by the SIEM
C. information from the email header
D. alert identified by the cybersecurity team

Verify answer

NEW QUESTION 9:

A network host is infected with malware by an attacker who uses the host to make calls for files and shuttle traffic to bots. This attack went undetected and resulted in a significant loss. The organization wants to ensure this does not happen in the future and needs a security solution that will generate alerts when command and control communication from an infected device is detected. Which network security solution should be recommended?

A. Cisco Secure Firewall ASA
B. Cisco Secure Firewall Threat Defense (Firepower)
C. Cisco Secure Email Gateway (ESA)
D. Cisco Secure Web Appliance (WSA)

Verify answer

NEW QUESTION 10:

An engineer received a call to assist with an ongoing DDoS attack. The Apache server is being targeted,
and availability is compromised. Which step should be taken to identify the origin of the threat?

A. An engineer should check the list of usernames currently logged in by running the command $ who |
cut –d’ ‘ -f1| sort | uniq

B. An engineer should check the server’s processes by running commands ps -aux and Sudo ps -a.

C. An engineer should check the services on the machine by running the command service -status-all.

D. An engineer should check the last hundred entries of a web server with the command sudo tail -100 /
var/log/apache2/access.log.

Verify answer

NEW QUESTION 11:

A scanner detected a malware-infected file on an endpoint that is attempting to beacon to an external site.

An analyst has reviewed the IPS and SIEM logs but is unable to identify the file’s behavior. Which logs
should be reviewed next to evaluate this file further?

A. email security appliance
B. DNS server
C. Antivirus solution
D. network device

Verify answer

NEW QUESTION 12:

What are YARA rules based upon?

A. binary patterns
B. HTML code
C. network artifacts
D. IP addresses

Verify answer

Reference: https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/YARA#:~:text=YARA%20is%20the%20name%20of,strings%20and
%20a%20boolean%20expression.

NEW QUESTION 13:

A security team received reports of users receiving emails linked to external or unknown URLs that are
non-returnable and non-deliverable. The ISP also reported a 500% increase in the amount of ingress and
egress email traffic received. After detecting the problem, the security team moves to the recovery phase
in their incident response plan. Which two actions should be taken in the recovery phase of this incident?
(Choose two.)

A. verify the breadth of the attack
B. collect logs
C. request packet capture
D. remove vulnerabilities
E. scan hosts with updated signatures

Verify answer

NEW QUESTION 14:

An engineer received a report of a suspicious email from an employee. The employee had already opened
the attachment, which was an empty Word document. The engineer cannot identify any clear signs of
compromise but while reviewing running processes, observes that PowerShell.exe was spawned by
cmd.exe with a grandparent winword.exe process. What is the recommended action the engineer should
take?

A. Upload the file signature to threat intelligence tools to determine if the file is malicious.
B. Monitor processes as this is a standard behavior of Word macro embedded documents.
C. Contain the threat for further analysis as this is an indication of suspicious activity.
D. Investigate the sender of the email and communicate with the employee to determine the motives.

Verify answer

NEW QUESTION 15:

DRAG DROP
Drag and drop the capabilities on the left onto the Cisco security solutions on the right.
Select and Place:

Correct Answer:

…

Verify CyberOps Professional 300-215 exam answers:

Numbers:

Q1

Q2

Q3

Q4

Q5

Q6

Q7

Q8

Q9

Q10

Q11

Q12

Q13

Q14

Q15

Answers:

AE

B

D

BC

CD

D

B

D

B

A

DE

A

IMAGE

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Number of exam questions	Exam name	From	Previous issue
15	Cisco Security Architecture for System Engineers (ASASE)	leads4pass	700-765 Dumps Exam Question Q1-Q15

New Question 16:

Which three customer business objectives does Cisco\’s Advanced Threat solutions address? (Choose Three)

A. Lower TCO through intelligent API management

B. Visibility and control with a managed environment

C. Accelerated firewall implementation

D. Complete protection with holistic defense

E. Comprehensive support with flexible solutions

F. Secure communications with advanced access

Correct Answer: B,D,E

New Question 17:

Which two attack vectors are protected by NGFW? (Choose Two)

A. Mobile

B. Email

C. Cloud

D. Web

E. Data Center

Correct Answer: C, E

New Question 18:

What does ThreatGrid integrate?

A. File reputation and behavioral indications of compromise

B. B. Threat intelligence and access control

C. File trajectory and time signatures

D. Malware analysis and threat intelligence

Correct Answer: D

New Question 19:

What are the three major features of StealthWatch? (Choose Three)

A. Malware clustering

B. Threat-based anomaly detection

C. Netflow monitoring

D. Data Loss Prevention

E. Realtime sandboxing

F. Forensic investigation

Correct Answer: B,C,F

New Question 20:

Which two attack vectors are protected by Malware Protection? (Choose Two)

A. Email

B. Mobile

C. Voicemail

D. Data Center

E. Web

Correct Answer: A, B

New Question 21:

On average, how many days elapse before businesses discover that they have been hacked?

A. 10

B. 50

C. 30

D. 70

Correct Answer: B

New Question 22:

What do Cisco NGFW fully integrated platforms offer that allow other security components to participate to achieve pervasive and consistent enforcement?

A. Context telemetry, and profiling sources

B. intelligence sources, telemetry, and shared intelligence

C. Telemetry, shared intelligence, and profiling sources

D. Context, telemetry, and intelligence sources

Correct Answer: A

New Question 23:

Which two attack vectors are protected by Cyber Threat DefenseandNetwork Analytics? (Choose Two)

A. Web

B. Endpoints

C. Cloud

D. Email

E. Data Center

Correct Answer: A, C

New Question 24:

Which two Cisco products remediate network, cloud, and endpoint threats? (Choose two.)

A. pxGrid

B. Cisco Security Connector

C. Duo

D. Stealthwatch

E. AMP for Endpoints

Correct Answer: D, E

New Question 25:

How does SD-WAN protect network traffic from end-to-end\’?

A. Segmentation

B. Automation

C. Analyzation

D. Management

Correct Answer: A

New Question 26:

What does TrustSec assign to the user or device traffic at ingress that enforces the access policy based on the tag in the infrastructure?

A. Ingress VLAN

B. Access Control List

C. Security Group Tag

D. VXLAN

Correct Answer: C

New Question 27:

Which two products are involved in discovering classifying and verifying profiles? (Choose Two)

A. Industrial Network Director

B. Duo

C. Cisco Security Connector

D. Advanced Malware Protection

E. Identity Services Engine

Correct Answer: B, E

New Question 28:

What are two reasons why perimeter-based network security is no longer sufficient? (Choose Two)

A. More users

B. More IT professionals

C. More devices

D. More networks

E. More vulnerabilities

Correct Answer: A, C

New Question 29:

Which feature of ISE has the capability to encounter a device new on the market and correctly profile it to onboard it quickly and easily?

A. Context-aware access

B. Centralized policy management

C. Platform exchange grid

D. Device profiling

Correct Answer: D

New Question 30:

What are the three main solutions areas for Advanced Threat? (Choose Three)

A. Threat Defense

B. Intrusion Analytics

C. Threat Analytics

D. Network Analytics

E. NGFW

F. Malware Protection

Correct Answer: C,D,F

…

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Latest updated DevNet Associate 200-901 dumps from Lead4Pass

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Read DevNet Associate 200-901 dumps exam questions and answers online:

New Question 1:

How does requesting a synchronous API operation differ from requesting an asynchronous API operation?

A. clients receive responses with a task id for further processing

B. clients subscribe to a webhook for operation results

C. clients poll for the status of the execution of operations

D. clients can access the results immediately

Correct Answer: C

New Question 2:

What are two advantages of YANG-based approaches for infrastructure automation? (Choose two.)

A. multi-platform vendor abstraction

B. compiles to executables that run on network devices

C. designed to reflect networking concepts

D. directly maps to JavaScript

E. command line is driven interface

Correct Answer: AC

New Question 3:

Which device is used to transport traffic from one broadcast domain to another broadcast domain?

A. layer 2 switch

B. proxy server

C. router

D. load balancer

Correct Answer: C

New Question 4:

Which service provides a directory lookup for IP addresses and host names?

A. DNS

B. NAT

C. SNMP

D. DHCP

Correct Answer: A

New Question 5:

Users cannot access a web server and after the traffic is captured, the capture tool shows an ICMP packet that reports “time exceeded in-transit”. What is the cause of this webserver access issue?

A. A router along the path has the wrong time.

B. A router along the path is misrouting the packets in the wrong direction.

C. The server is too loaded and the connection could not be handled in time.

D. The server is too far away and the packets require too much time to reach it.

Correct Answer: B

New Question 6:

Refer to the exhibit.

What is the value of the node defined by this YANG structure?

DevNet Associate 200-901 dumps exam q6-1

A. Option A

B. Option B

C. Option C

D. Option D

Correct Answer: D

New Question 7:

What is used in Layer 2 switches to direct packet transmission to the intended recipient?

A. MAC address

B. IPv6 address

C. spanning tree D. IPv4 address

Correct Answer: A

New Question 8:

Refer to the exhibit.

What is the result of executing this Ansible playbook?

A. The playbook copies a new start-up configuration to CISCO_ROUTER_01

B. The playbook copies a new running configuration to CISCO_ROUTER_01

C. The playbook backs up the running configuration of CISCO_ROUTER_01

D. The playbook backs up the start-up configuration of CISCO_ROUTER_01

Correct Answer: D

New Question 9:

A 401 HTTP response code is returned when calling a REST API. What is the error state identified by this response code?

A. The server cannot process the request as it has detected an issue in the request syntax or body.

B. The request has not been accepted because it requires authentication.

C. The sever accepted the request but the client is not authorized for this content.

D. The server cannot find the requested resource because the path specified is incorrect.

Correct Answer: B

Reference: https://blog.restcase.com/rest-api-error-codes-101/#:~:text=A%20401%20error%20response% 20indicates,credentials%20or%20none%20at%20all.

New Question 10:

What is the first development task in test-driven development?

A. Write code that implements the desired function.

B. Write a failing test case for the desired function.

C. Reverse engineer the code for the desired function.

D. Write a passing test case for existing code.

Correct Answer: B

Reference: https://technologyconversations.com/2013/12/20/test-driven-development-tdd-example- walkthrough/

New Question 11:

What is the purpose of a firewall in application deployment?

A. adds TLS support to an application that does not support it natively

B. limits traffic to only ports required by the application

C. provides translation for an application\’s hostname to its IP address

D. forwards traffic to a pool of instances of the application

Correct Answer: B

New Question 12:

A small company has 5 servers and 50 clients. What are two reasons an engineer should split this network into separate client and server subnets? (Choose two.)

A. Subnets will split domains to limit failures.

B. A router will limit the traffic types between the clients and servers.

C. Subnets provide more IP address space for clients and servers.

D. A router will bridge the traffic between clients and servers.

E. Internet access to the servers will be denied on the router.

Correct Answer: AB

New Question 13:

How does a developer create and switch to a new branch called “my-bug-fix” to develop a product fix?

A. git checkout -b my-bug-fix

B. git branch -b my-bug-fix

C. git branch my-bug-fix

D. git checkout my-bug-fix

Correct Answer: C

Reference: https://www.dnnsoftware.com/community-blog/cid/155105

New Question 14:

What operation is performed with YANG model-driven programmability in NX-OS?

A. configure a device with native and OpenConfig-based models

B. bootstrap a device that has a factory-default configuration

C. send CLI commands to a device and retrieve output in JSON format

D. run Linux commands natively on the device

Correct Answer: A

Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/products/collateral/switches/nexus-9000-series-switches/white- paper-c11-741518.html

New Question 15:

What is the function of an IP address in networking?

A. represents a network connection on specific devices

B. specifies the type of traffic that is allowed to roam on a network

C. specifies the resource\’s location and the mechanism to retrieve it

D. represents the unique ID that is assigned to one host on a network

Correct Answer: D

…

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Cisco 500-220 ECMS exam candidates can successfully pass the exam with the latest version of the 500-220 dumps

admin September 13, 2022

The latest version of 500-220 dumps released today, proven, correct, and effective, candidates can use the PDF and VCE exam tools provided by leads4pass to help you practice all exam questions, guaranteeing you 100% success in passing the Cisco 500-220 ECMS exam (Engineering Cisco Meraki Solutions).

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The latest Cisco 500-220 Dumps exam questions are shared online:

Number of exam questions	Update time	Exam	Previous issue
15	Sep 13, 2022	Cisco Meraki Solutions Specialist (500-220)	Apr 26, 2022

Question 1:

Refer to the exhibit. Assuming this MX has established a full tunnel with its VPN peer, how will the MX route the WebEx traffic?

A. WebEx traffic will prefer WAN 2 as long as it meets the thresholds in the “Conf” performance class.

B. WebEx traffic will prefer WAN 1 as it is the primary uplink.

C. WebEx traffic will prefer WAN 2 as long as it is up.

D. WebEx traffic will be load-balanced between both active WAN links.

Check answer >>

Question 2:

Refer to the exhibit. Which two actions are required to optimize load balancing asymmetrically with a 4:1 ratio between links? (Choose two.)

A. Change the primary uplink to “none”.

B. Add an internet traffic preference that defines the load-balancing ratio as 4:1.

C. Enable load balancing.

D. Set the speed of the cellular uplink to zero.

E. Change the assigned speeds of WAN 1 and WAN 2 so that the ratio is 4:1.

Check answer >>

Question 3:

Which Cisco Meraki best practice method preserves complete historical network event logs?

A. Configuring the preserved event number to maximize logging.

B. Configuring the preserved event period to unlimited.

C. Configuring a Syslog server for the network.

D. Configuring Dashboard logging to preserve only certain event types.

Check answer >>

Question 4:

Which design requirement is met by implementing Syslog versus SNMP?

A. when automation capabilities are needed

B. when proactive alerts for critical events must be generated

C. when organization-wide information must be collected

D. when information such as flows and client connectivity must be gathered

Check answer >>

Question 5:

Refer to the exhibit. A packet arrives on the VPN concentrator with source IP 10.168.70.3 and is destined for IP 10.116.32.4. What is the next hop for the packet, based on this concentrator routing table?

A. The concentrator gateway (10.128.124.62) is the next hop.

B. Not enough detail is available to determine the next hop.

C. The packet is stopped.

D. The Auto VPN peer “Store 1532 ? appliance” is the next hop.

Check answer >>

Question 6:

Company iPads are enrolled in Systems Manager without supervision, and profiles are pushed through Systems Manager. Which outcome occurs when a user attempts to remove the “Meraki Management” profile on an iPad?

A. The “Meraki Management” profile cannot be removed.

B. The “Meraki Management” profile is removed and then pushed automatically by the Systems Manager.

C. The “Meraki Management” profile is removed. All the profiles that Systems Manager pushed are also removed.

D. The “Meraki Management” profile is removed. All the profiles Systems Manager pushed remain.

Check answer >>

Question 7:

Refer to the exhibit. What are the Loss and Average Latency statistics based on?

A. responses that the MX appliance receives on the connectivity-testing hostnames on the Insight > Web App Health page

B. responses that the MX appliance receives on the connectivity-testing IP addresses on the Security and SD-WAN > Firewall page

C. responses that the MX appliance receives on the connectivity-testing IP address that is configured on the Security and SD-WAN > SD-WAN and Traffic Shaping page

D. responses that the MX appliance receives on the connectivity-testing IP addresses on the Help > Firewall info page

Check answer >>

Question 8:

In an organization that uses the Co-Termination licensing model, which two operations enable licenses to be applied? (Choose two.)

A. Renew the Dashboard license.

B. License a network.

C. License more devices.

D. Call Meraki support.

E. Wait for the devices to auto-renew.

Check answer >>

Question 9:

What are two ways peers interact with ports that Auto VPN uses? (Choose two.)

A. For IPsec tunneling, peers use high UDP ports within the 32768 to 61000 range.

B. Peers contact the VPN registry at UDP port 9350.

C. For IPsec tunneling, peers use high TCP ports within the 32768 to 61000 range.

D. Peers contact the VPN registry at TCP port 9350.

E. For IPsec tunneling, peers use UDP ports 500 and 4500.

Check answer >>

Question 10:

What occurs when a configuration change is made to an MX network that is bound to a configuration template?

A. The configuration change in the bound network is combined with the template configuration inside the template.

B. The more restrictive configuration is preferred.

C. The configuration change in the bound network overrides the template configuration.

D. The template configuration overrides the configuration change in the bound network.

Check answer >>

Question 11:

One thousand concurrent users stream video to their laptops. A 30/70 split between 2.4 GHz and 5 GHz is used. Based on client count, how many APs (rounded to the nearest whole number) are needed?

A. 26

B. 28

C. 30

D. 32

Check answer >>

Question 12:

Refer to the exhibit. For an AP that displays this alert, which network access control method must be in use?

A. preshared key

B. WPA2-enterprise with my RADIUS server

C. splash page with my RADIUS server

D. MAC-based access control with RADIUS server

Check answer >>

Question 13:

Which Meraki Dashboard menu section is accessed to enable Sentry enrollment on an SSID?

A. Wireless > Configure > Access Control

B. Wireless > Configure > Splash page

C. Wireless > Configure > Firewall and Traffic Shaping

D. Wireless > Configure > SSIDs

Check answer >>

Question 14:

Refer to the exhibit. What does the MX Security Appliance send to determine whether VPN traffic exceeds the configured latency threshold in the VoIP custom performance class?

A. 1000-byte TCP probes every second, through VPN tunnels that are established over the primary WAN link.

B. 100-byte UDP probes every second, through VPN tunnels that are established over every WAN link.

C. 100-byte UDP probes every second, through VPN tunnels that are established over the primary WAN link.

D. 1000-byte TCP probes every second, through VPN tunnels that are established over every WAN link.

Check answer >>

Question 15:

What is the role of the Meraki Dashboard as the service provider when using SAML for single sign-on to the Dashboard?

A. The Dashboard generates the SAML request.

B. The Dashboard provides user access credentials.

C. The Dashboard parses the SAML request and authenticates users.

D. The Dashboard generates the SAML response.

Check answer >>

Verify the answer:

Numbers:

Q1

Q2

Q3

Q4

Q5

Q6

Q7

Q8

Q9

Q10

Q11

Q12

Q13

Q14

Q15

Answers:

B

BC

A

D

B

C

B

AC

BC

A

C

A

D

A

The above Cisco 500-220 Dumps exam contains 15 questions that you can practice to improve yourself. The latest version of the 500-220 dumps, updated in September 2022, contains 57 exam questions and answers that candidates can practice to help them successfully pass Cisco 500-220 ECMS exam. You are welcome to use the latest version of 500-220 dumps https://www.leads4pass.com/500-220.html. Escort your career leap.

Cisco 200-301 dumps: serves all 200-301 CCNA exam candidates

admin August 29, 2022

The newly updated Cisco 200-301 dumps contain 825 exam questions and answers that candidates can study using the 200-301 dumps PDF and 200-301 dumps VCE to help you successfully pass the 200-301 CCNA exam.

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New Question 1:

DRAG DROP

A network engineer is configuring an OSPFv2 neighbor adjacency. Drag and drop the parameters from the left onto their required categories on the right. Not all parameters are used.

Select and Place:

Correct Answer:

New Question 2:

Drag and drop the threat-mitigation techniques from the left onto the types of threat or attack they mitigate on the right.

Select and Place:

Correct Answer:

In this attack, the attacking computer generates frames with two 802.1Q tags. The first tag matches the native VLAN of the trunk port (VLAN 10 in this case), and the second matches the VLAN of a host it wants to attack (VLAN 20).

When the packet from the attacker reaches Switch A, Switch A only sees the first VLAN 10 and it matches with its native VLAN 10 so this VLAN tag is removed. Switch A forwards the frame out all links with the same native VLAN 10. Switch B

receives the frame with an tag of VLAN 20 so it removes this tag and forwards out to the Victim computer.

Note: This attack only works if the trunk (between two switches) has the same native VLAN as the attacker.

To mitigate this type of attack, you can use VLAN access control lists (VACLs, which applies to all traffic within a VLAN. We can use VACL to drop attacker traffic to specific victims/servers) or implement Private VLANs.

ARP attack (like ARP poisoning/spoofing) is a type of attack in which a malicious actor sends falsified ARP messages over a local area network as ARP allows a gratuitous reply from a host even if an ARP request was not received. This

results in the linking of an attacker\’s MAC address with the IP address of a legitimate computer or server on the network. This is an attack based on ARP which is at Layer 2. Dynamic ARP inspection (DAI) is a security feature that validates ARP packets in a network which can be used to mitigate this type of attack.

New Question 3:

Drag and drop the Cisco Wireless LAN Controller security settings from the left onto the correct security mechanism categories on the right.

Select and Place:

Correct Answer:

Layer 2 Security Mechanism includes WPA+WPA2, 802.1X, Static WEP, and CKIP while Layer 3 Security Mechanisms (for WLAN) includes IPSec, VPN Pass-Through, Web Passthrough …

New Question 4:

DRAG DROP

Refer to the exhibit.

Drag and drop the networking parameters from the left onto the correct values on the right.
Select and Place:

The “IP route” and “IP addr show eth1” are Linux commands.

1.

“IP route”: display the routing table

2.

“IP address show eth1”: get depth information (only on eth1 interface) about your network interfaces like IP Address, MAC Address information

New Question 5:

DRAG DROP

Drag and drop the AAA functions from the left onto the correct AAA services on the right.

Select and Place:

Correct Answer:

New Question 6:

Drag and drop the IPv4 network subnets from the left onto the correct usable host ranges on the right.

Select and Place:

Correct Answer:

This subnet question requires us to grasp how to subnet very well. To quickly find out the subnet range, we have to find out the increment and the network address of each subnet. Let\’s take an example with the subnet 172.28.228.144/18:

From the /18 (= 1100 0000 in the 3rd octet), we find out the increment is 64. Therefore the network address of this subnet must be the greatest multiple of the increment but not greater than the value in the 3rd octet (228). We can find out the 3rd octet of the network address is 192 (because 192 = 64 * 3 and 192 < 228) -> The network address is 172.28.192.0. So the first usable host should be 172.28.192.1 and it matches with the 5th answer on the right. In this case we don\’t need to calculate the broadcast address because we found the correct answer.

Let\’s take another example with subnet 172.28.228.144/23 -> The increment is 2 (as /23 = 1111 1110 in 3rd octet) -> The 3rd octet of the network address is 228 (because 228 is the multiply of 2 and equal to the 3rd octet) -> The network address is 172.28.228.0 -> The first usable host is 172.28.228.1. It is not necessary but if we want to find out the broadcast address of this subnet, we can find out the next network address, which is 172.28.(228 + the increment number).0 or

172.28.230.0 then reduce 1 bit -> 172.28.229.255 is the broadcast address of our subnet. Therefore the last usable host is 172.28.229.254.

New Question 7:

Drag and drop the descriptions of file-transfer protocols from the left onto the correct protocols on the right.

Select and Place:

Correct Answer:

New Question 8:

Drag and drop the WLAN components from the left onto the correct descriptions on the right.

Select and Place:

Correct Answer:

The service port can be used for management purposes, primarily for out-of-band management. However, AP management traffic is not possible across the service port. In most cases, the service port is used as a “last resort” means of accessing the controller GUI for management purposes. For example, in the case where the system distribution ports on the controller are down or their communication to the wired network is otherwise degraded.

A dynamic interface with the Dynamic AP Management option enabled is used as the tunnel source for packets from the controller to the access point and as the destination for CAPWAP packets from the access point to the controller. The virtual interface is used to support mobility management, Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol (DHCP) relay, and embedded Layer 3 security such as guest web authentication. It also maintains the DNS gateway hostname used by Layer 3 security and mobility managers to verify the source of certificates when Layer 3 web authorization is enabled.

New Question 9:

Drag and drop the functions from the left onto the correct network components on the right.

Select and Place:

Correct Answer:

New Question 10:

Drag and drop the routing table components on the left onto the corresponding letter from the exhibit on the right. not all options are used.

Select and Place:

Correct Answer:

New Question 11:

Drag and drop each broadcast IP address on the left to the Broadcast Address column on the right. Not all options are used.

Select and Place:

Correct Answer:

Question 12:

An interface has been configured with the access list that is shown below.

On the basis of that access list, drag each information packet on the left to the appropriate category on the right.

Select and Place:

Correct Answer:

New Question 13:

Order the DHCP message types as they would occur between a DHCP client and a DHCP server.

Select and Place:

Correct Answer:

New Question 14:

DRAG DROP

Drag and drop the attack-mitigation techniques from the left onto the types of attack that they mitigate on the right.

Select and Place:

Correct Answer:

802.1q double-tagging VLAN-hopping attack: configure the native VLAN with a nondefault VLAN ID MAC flooding attack: configure 802.1x authenticate man-in-the-middle spoofing attack: configure DHCP snooping switch-spoofing VLAN-hopping attack: disable DTP

New Question 15:

DRAG DROP

Drag and drop the characteristics of networking from the left onto the correct networking types on the right.

Select and Place:

Correct Answer:

…

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300-420 ENSLD Exam: 300-420 dumps are effective preparation material

admin August 2, 2022

Use Cisco 300-420 dumps as the best preparation material for the 300-420 ENSLD Exam to help you pass the exam successfully.

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Tips: Answers will be announced at the end of the article

QUESTION 1:

An engineer is tasked with designing a dual BGP peering solution with a service provider. The design must meet these conditions:

1. The routers will not learn any prefix with a subnet mask greater than /24.

2. The routers will determine the routes to include in the routing table based on the length of the mask alone.

3. The routers will make this selection regardless of the service provider configuration.

Which solution should the engineer include in the design?

A. Use a route map and access list to block the desired networks, and apply the route map to BGP neighbors inbound.

B. Use a route map and prefix list to block the desired networks, and apply the route map to BGP neighbors outbound.

C. Use an IP prefix list to block the desired networks and apply the IP prefix list to BGP neighbors outbound.

D. Use an IP prefix list to block the desired networks and apply the IP prefix list to BGP neighbors inbound.

QUESTION 2:

A company is using OSPF between its HQ location and a branch office. HQ is assigned area 0 and the branch office is assigned area 1. The company purchases a second branch office, but due to circuit delays to HQ, it decides to connect the new branch office to the creating branch office as a temporary measure. The new branch office is assigned area 2.

Which OSPF configuration enables all three locations to exchange routes?

A. The existing branch office must be configured as a stub area
B. A virtual link must be configured between the new branch office and HQ
C. A sham link must be configured between the new branch office and HQ
D. The new branch office must be configured as a stub area

QUESTION 3:

How is end-to-end microsegmentation enforced in a Cisco SD-Access architecture?

A. VLANs are used to segment traffic at Layer 2.
B. 5-tuples and ACLs are used to permit or deny traffic.
C. SGTs and SGTACLs are used to control access to various resources.
D. VRFs are used to segment traffic at Layer 3.

QUESTION 4:

Which two routing protocols allow for unequal cost load balancing? (Choose two.)

A. EIGRP
B. IS-IS
C. BGP
D. OSPF
E. RIPng

QUESTION 5:

DRAG DROP
Drag and drop the characteristics from the left onto the telemetry mode they apply to on the right.
Select and Place:

Correct Answer:

QUESTION 6:

How is redundancy achieved among Cisco vBond Orchestrators in a Cisco SD-WAN deployment?

A. The IP addresses of all Orchestrators are mapped to a single DNS name.
B. The closest Orchestrator to each Cisco WAN Edge router is selected.
C. Cisco WAN Edge routers are configured with all Orchestrators using their IP addresses and priority.
D. A single Cisco Orchestrator is deployed in each network.

QUESTION 7:

Refer to the exhibit. AS65533 and AS65530 are announcing a partial Internet routing table as well as their IP subnets.

An architect must create a design that ensures AS64512 does not become a transit AS. Which filtering solution must the architect choose?

A. no-advertise
B. next-hop
C. no-export
D. maximum-prefix

QUESTION 8:

Refer to the exhibit. An engineer must design an automatic failover solution. The solution should allow HSRP to detect a WAN 1 failure and initiate an automatic failover, making router R2 the active HSRP router. Which two solutions should the engineer choose? (Choose two.)

A. Implement Enhanced Object Tracking on roster R1
B. use a floating static route
C. Implement IP SLA on router R1
D. Implement PBR on router R1
E. use IP source routing

QUESTION 9:

Which two functions does the control plane node provide in a Cisco SD-Access architecture? (Choose two.)

A. LISP proxy ETR
B. host tracking database
C. policy mapping
D. map server
E. endpoint registration

QUESTION 10:

How is sub-second failure of a transport link detected in a Cisco SD-WAN network?

A. Hellos are sent between the WAN Edge routers and the vSmart controller.
B. BFD runs on the IPsec tunnels between WAN Edge routers.
C. BGP is used between WAN Edge routers and the vSmart controller.
D. Link state change messages are sent between vSmart controllers.

QUESTION 11:

Refer to the exhibit. The distribution switches serve as the layer 3 boundary. HSRP preemption is enabled. When the primary switch comes back after a failure, traffic is initially dropped. Which solution must be implemented to improve the design?

A. split-horizon
B. summarization
C. down bit
D. route tags

QUESTION 12:

Refer to the exhibit. An architect must design an IP addressing scheme for a multisite network connected via a WAN transit. The campus site must accommodate 12,000 devices and the branch sites must accommodate 1,000 devices.

Which address scheme optimizes network device resources, contains convergence events to the different blocks of the network, and ensures future growth of the network?

A. Campus: 10.0.0.0/18 Branch1: 10.0.192.0/21 Branch2: 10.0.200.0/21
B. Campus: 10.0.0.0/16 Branchi: 10.255.0.0/20 Branch2: 10.255.16.0/20
C. Campus: 10.0.0.0/10 Branch1: 10.64.0.0/10 Branch2: 10.128.0.0/10
D. Campus: 10.0.0.0/20 Branch1: 10.0.64.0/21 Branch2: 10.0.128.0/21

QUESTION 13:

A customer with an IPv4 only network topology wants to enable IPv6 connectivity while preserving the IPv4 topology services. The customer plans to migrate IPv4 services to the IPv6 topology, then decommission the IPv4 topology.

Which topology supports these requirements?

A. dual stack
B. 6VPE
C. 6to4
D. NAT64

Published answer:

Numbers:

Q1

Q2

Q3

Q4

Q5

Q6

Q7

Q8

Q9

Q10

Q11

Q12

Q13

Answers:

D

B

C

AC

IMAGE

A

D

AC

BD

B

D

A

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