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Latest 700-755 dumps to help you pass the Cisco SBTO exam(3)

admin April 18, 2024

Use the Latest 700-755 dumps to help you pass the Cisco SBTO certification exam (3)

This is the third part of Cisco 700-755 dumps the latest updates for 2024 to help you successfully pass the Cisco SBTO certification exam.

The last update was the 2022 Cisco 700-755 dumps update. Cisco Small Business Technical Overview (700-755) certification exam updates are very slow, so our updates will be relatively few. You can even use old exam materials to assist you. Exam practice. The latest Cisco 700-755 dumps exam materials have been updated in 2024. You can participate in online exercises or download the April 2024 update containing 60 latest exam practice questions: https://www.leads4pass.com/700-755.html (PDF+VCE)

Practice Cisco 700-755 dumps exam questions online (3)

From	Number of exam questions	Type	Last updated
Leads4Pass	15	Free	700-755 dumps (2)

New Question 1:

How does the Cisco Catalyst 1000 series switch function?

A. with Cisco IOS software and it supports advanced device and network management via CLI

B. offers flexibility for a wide range of network environments, supporting IGb or IOGb uplinks

C. as a fixed managed FastEthernet enterprise-class layer-2 switch for small businesses and branch offices

D. as a fixed managed Gigabit Ethernet enterprise-class layer-3 capable switch for small businesses and branch Offices

Correct Answer: B

New Question 2:

How is an organization defined within the context of the Meraki Dashboard?

A. It is defined by the user\’s network construct and categorized as either SME (small- medium enterprise), campus, or a distributed enterprise.

B. It contains Cisco Meraki devices, their configurations, statistics, and any client-device information.

C. It serves as the account\’s administrative domain boundary, including license, inventory, and user management.

D. It consists of multiple service provider resources, including support ticket management and API sandboxes.

Correct Answer: C

New Question 3:

In which two ways can the Cisco Catalyst 1000 series of switches be managed? (Choose two )

A. Command-Line Interface

B. Mobile App

C. Cisco Prime

D. Cloud Managed

E. On-box web Ul

Correct Answer: AE

New Question 4:

How can Cisco Mobility Express be described?

A. supports WiFi 6 access points

B. ideal for sites with up to 200 access points and 2000 clients

C. runs a wireless LAN controller function on an Aironet access point

D. runs a wireless LAN controller function on a Catalyst access point

Correct Answer: C

Explanation: According to a FAQ page by Cisco1, Cisco Mobility Express is a virtual wireless LAN controller integrated into 802.11ac Wave 2 access points (Cisco Aironet Series).

New Question 5:

Which Cisco Catalyst 9100 AP feature adds capacity by automatically changing the access points from 2.4 and 5GHz to Dual 5GHz?

A. FRA

B. SMU

C. CleanAir

D. wIPS

Correct Answer: A

New Question 6:

Which Cisco-designed portfolio solution is best for a business of 50 users or less?

A. Meraki MX

B. Meraki Go

C. Firepower 10-10

D. Cisco Umbrella

E. Cisco AnyConnect

Correct Answer: B

New Question 7:

How has small businesses’ response time to cyberattacks changed?

A. 74% of small businesses say their time to respond has either increased or stayed the same.

B. 91 % of small businesses say their time to respond has increased.

C. 22% of small businesses say their time to respond has decreased.

D. 36% of small businesses say their time to respond has stayed the same.

Correct Answer: A

Explanation: According to a research report by Cisco and Ponemon Institute1, only 26 percent of small businesses said their time to respond to a cyberattack has decreased in the past 12 months. The rest said their time has either increased or stayed the same.

New Question 8:

What is the behavior of Cisco AMP for Endpoints?

A. the top ten significant compromises are prominently displayed in the console

B. security compromises are graphically shown and color-coded by the device

C. prevents threats at the point of entry

D. allows a user to categorize events and endpoints by infection time

Correct Answer: C

New Question 9:

When enabled which two features will help extend the retention capacity of the Meraki MV smart cameras\’? (Choose two)

A. Direct stream-based retention

B. Schedule-based retention

C. Hybrid archives

D. Cloud archives

E. Motion-based retention

Correct Answer: BE

New Question 10:

Combining a Cisco Meraki MR access point and MS switch solution provides which additional functionality over pairing with a Cisco Catalyst?

A. automated MDM onboarding

B. centralized management and configuration

C. Layer 7 application fingerprinting

D. remote cable troubleshooting

Correct Answer: D

New Question 11:

What are the two most frequent attack vectors used in cyber attacks against small businesses? (Choose two.)

A. malware

B. viruses

C. social engineering

D. phishing

E. pop-ups

Correct Answer: AD

New Question 12:

Which two security tools allow administrators to maximize the security of their Dashboard management accounts\’? (Choose two )

A. Role-based administration

B. Local (direct) access-only policies

C. Two-factor authentication

D. Biometric authentication

E. Captcha challenge-response tests

Correct Answer: AC

New Question 13:

How does the Cisco-designed portfolio ensure that someone trying to access the network is who they say they are?

A. Cisco Umbrella

B. single-factor authentication

C. Talos

D. multi-factor authentication using Duo

E. password policy enforcement

Correct Answer: D

New Question 14:

Which two firewalls form part of Cisco\’s SMB offering? (Choose two )

A. Cisco Firepower 1000

B. Cisco ISA

C. Cisco ISE

D. Cisco ASAv

E. Cisco Meraki MX

Correct Answer: AE

New Question 15:

What are the primary functions of the Network Topology feature in the Meraki Dashboard?

A. It provides an intelligent mapping of physical links, dynamic device searching, and overall usage statistics and health status

B. It provides administrators optimization recommendations based on what has been detected in the existing topology

C. It is a diagramming and vector graphics application that consolidates Cisco Meraki-only devices into a summary document

D. It compiles a report presenting a variety of statistics broken out across product-specific sections based on the current network

Correct Answer: A

Summarize:

This update continues the second part of Cisco 700-755 dumps, providing the latest exam practice questions and answers to help candidates understand the latest exam directions. Continue to follow Dumpinside to share the latest and most useful exam materials.

The Express Specialization Small Business certification is a special certification that belongs to the cisco Associate Certification and is the only certification.

700-755 SBTO certification exam tests a candidate’s knowledge and skills to educate, deploy, and activate small business solutions with particular emphasis on the Cisco Designed small business portfolio.

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Lead4Pass 300-720 dumps Update Adds More exam questions

admin October 17, 2023

leads4pass 300-720 dumps Update Adds More exam questions

leads4pass 300-720 dumps released the latest version in October!

leads4pass 300-720 dumps: https://www.leads4pass.com/300-720.html Updated with new exam questions, based on the new 300-720 SESA “Securing Email with Cisco Email Security Appliance” exam topic:

Cisco Email Security Appliance Administration
Spam Control with Talos SenderBase and Antispam
Content and Message Filters
LDAP and SMTP Sessions
Email Authentication and Encryption
System Quarantines and Delivery Methods

Expanded with more exam questions, it is the latest 300-720 SESA exam solution!

It also provides two learning methods, PDF and VCE, both of which contain the latest exam practice questions to help you prepare for the 300-720 SESA exam easily!

Latest 300-720 SESA Exam Details:

Exam name:	Securing Email with Cisco Email Security Appliance (SESA)
Exam code:	300-720
The number of exam questions:	55-65
Languages:	English
Time:	90 minutes
Price:	$300 USD
Exam Type:	Multiple-choice (single answer) Multiple-choice (multiple answers) Drag and drop Simulation
Passing Score:	750-850 / 1000 (Data Variable)
Exam Registration:	In-person, Pearson VUE

Free sharing of Latest 300-720 dumps exam questions online practice

From	Number of exam questions	Type	Related exams
leads4pass	15/142	Free	CCNP Security

Question 1:

A network engineer is editing the default DMARC verification profile on a Cisco ESA and must ensure that the configured Message Action in the profile matches the policy in the DMARC record. What must be set to achieve this result?

A. “Message Action when the Policy in DMARC Record is Reject” to Reject

B. “Message Action when the Policy in DMARC Record is None” to Quarantine

C. “Message Action when the Policy in DMARC Record is None” to No Action

D. “Message Action when the Policy in DMARC Record is Reject” to Quarantine

Correct Answer: A

Question 2:

A network administrator notices that there are a high number of queries to the LDAP server. The mail logs show an entry “550 Too many invalid recipients | Connection closed by foreign host.” Which feature must be used to address this?

A. DHAP

B. SBRS

C. LDAP

D. SMTP

Correct Answer: D

Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/security/esa/esa12-0/user_guide/b_ESA_Admin_Guide_12_0/b_ESA_Admin_Guide_12_0_chapter_011010.html

Question 3:

An analyst creates a new content dictionary to use with Forged Email Detection. Which entry will be added to the dictionary?

A. mycompany.com

B. Alpha Beta

C. ^Alpha\ Beta$

D. [email protected]

Correct Answer: A

Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/products/collateral/security/email-security-appliance/whitepaper_C11-737596.html

Question 4:

What is the benefit of implementing URL filtering on the Cisco ESA?

A. removes threats from malicious URLs

B. blacklists spam

C. provides URL reputation protection

D. enhances reputation against malicious URLs

Correct Answer: C

Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/support/docs/security/email-security-appliance/118775-technote-esa-00.html

Question 5:

A company has deployed a new mandate that requires all emails sent externally from the Sales Department to be scanned by DLP for PCI-DSS compliance. A new DLP policy has been created on the Cisco ESA and needs to be assigned to a mail policy named `Sales\’ that has yet to be created.

Which mail policy should be created to accomplish this task?

A. Outgoing Mail Policy

B. Preliminary Mail Policy

C. Incoming Mail Flow Policy

D. Outgoing Mail Flow Policy

Correct Answer: A

Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/security/esa/esa12-0/user_guide/b_ESA_Admin_Guide_12_0/b_ESA_Admin_Guide_chapter_010001.html#task_1409483

Question 6:

Which feature must be activated on a Cisco ESA to combat backscatter?

A. Graymail Detection

B. Bounce Profile

C. Forged Email Detection

D. Bounce Verification

Correct Answer: D

Question 7:

A Cisco ESA administrator is creating a Mail Flow Policy to receive outbound emails from Microsoft Exchange. Which Connection Behavior must be selected to properly process the messages?

A. Delay

B. Accept

C. Relay

D. Reject

Correct Answer: C

Question 8:

A company security policy requires that the finance department have an easy way to apply encryption to their outbound messages that contain sensitive data. Users must be able to flag the messages that require encryption versus a Cisco ESA scanning all messages and automatically encrypting via detection. Which action enables this capability?

A. Create an outgoing content filter with no conditions and with the Encrypt and Deliver Now action configured with [SECURE] in the Subject setting.

B. Create a DLP policy manager message action with encryption enabled and apply it to active DLP policies for outgoing mail.

C. Create an encryption profile with [SECURE] in the Subject setting and enable encryption on the mail flow policy.

D. Create an encryption profile and an outgoing content filter that includes \[SECURE\] within the Subject Header: Contains condition along with the Encrypt and Deliver Now action.

Correct Answer: D

Question 9:

Which two statements about configuring message filters within the Cisco ESA are true? (Choose two.)

A. The filters command executed from the CLI is used to configure the message filters.

B. Message filter configuration within the web user interface is located within Incoming Content Filters.

C. The filterconfig command executed from the CLI is used to configure message filters.

D. Message filters can be configured only from the CLI.

E. Message filters can be configured only from the web user interface.

Correct Answer: AD

Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/support/docs/security/email-security-appliance/213940-esa-using-a-message-filter-to-take-act.html

Question 10:

Which two features of Cisco Email Security are added to a Sender Group to protect an organization against email threats? (Choose two.)

A. NetFlow

B. geolocation-based filtering

C. heuristic-based filtering

D. senderbase reputation filtering

E. content disarm and reconstruction

Correct Answer: CD

Question 11:

What is a valid content filter action?

A. decrypt on delivery

B. quarantine

C. skip antispam

D. archive

Correct Answer: B

Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/security/esa/esa12-0/user_guide/b_ESA_Admin_Guide_12_0/b_ESA_Admin_Guide_chapter_01010.html#con_1158022

Question 12:

The Cisco ESA is processing many messages that are sent to invalid recipients. To reduce this excessive processing, an engineer is preparing to use LDAP for recipient verification. Which two steps are required to accomplish this task? (Choose two.)

A. Configure LDAP server profiles.

B. Enable external LDAP authentication.

C. Configure the LDAP query.

D. Enable LDAP authentication on a listener.

E. Configure incoming mail policy to query LDAP server.

Correct Answer: AE

Question 13:

An engineer is configuring an SMTP authentication profile on a Cisco ESA which requires certificate verification. Which section must be configured to accomplish this goal?

A. Mail Flow Policies

B. Sending Profiles

C. Outgoing Mail Policies

D. Verification Profiles

Correct Answer: A

Question 14:

An email containing a URL passes through the Cisco ESA that has content filtering disabled for all mail policies. The sender is [email protected], the recipients are [email protected], [email protected], [email protected], and [email protected]. The subject of the email is Test Document395898847. An administrator wants to add a policy to ensure that the Cisco ESA evaluates the web reputation score before permitting this email.

Which two criteria must be used by the administrator to achieve this? (Choose two.)

A. Subject contains “TestDocument”

B. Sender matches test1.com

C. Email body contains a URL

D. Date and time of email

E.

Correct Answer: AC

Question 15:

DRAG DROP

Drag and drop the Cisco ESA reactions to a possible DLP from the left onto the correct action types on the right.

Select and Place:

Latest 300-720 dumps exam questions 15 online practice

Correct Answer:

Latest 300-720 dumps exam questions 15-1 online practice

Reference:

https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/security/esa/esa12-0/user_guide/b_ESA_Admin_Guide_12_0/b_ESA_Admin_Guide_chapter_010001.html (message actions)

Summarize:

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300-430 ENWLSI exam solutions and how to succeed with 300-430 dumps

admin September 6, 2023

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From	Number of exam questions	Price	Associated certifications
leads4pass	15/220 (Full)	Free	CCNP Enterprise

Question 1:

A corporation has recently implemented a BYOD policy at its HQ. Which two risks should the security director be concerned about? (Choose two.)

A. network analyzers

B. malware

C. lost and stolen devices

D. keyloggers

E. unauthorized users

Correct Answer: BC

https://ccbtechnology.com/byod-5-biggest-security-risks/ https://blogs.cisco.com/security/byod-many-call-it-bring-your-own-malware-byom

Question 2:

A Cisco WLC has been added to the network and Cisco ISE as a network device, but authentication is failing. Which configuration within the network device configuration should be verified?

A. SNMP RO community

B. device interface credentials

C. device ID

D. shared secret

Correct Answer: D

Question 3:

An engineer must implement intrusion protection in the WLAN. The AP coverage is adequate and on-channel attacks are the primary concern. The building is historic, which makes adding APs difficult. Which AP mode and submodel must be implemented?

A. Ap mode: local, Ap submodel: WIPS

B. Ap mode: monitor, Ap submodel: WIPS

C. Ap mode: monitor, Ap submodel: none

D. Ap mode: local, Ap submodel: none

Correct Answer: A

The on-channel says no need to scan other channels.

Question 4:

A user is trying to connect to a wireless network that is configured for WPA2-Enterprise security using a corporate laptop. The CA certificate for the authentication server has been installed on the

Trusted Root Certification Authorities are stored on the laptop. The user has been prompted to enter the credentials multiple times, but the authentication has not succeeded. What is causing the issue?

A. There is an IEEE invalid 802.1X authentication policy on the authentication server.

B. The user’s Active Directory account is locked out after several failed attempts.

C. There is an invalid 802.1X authentication policy on the authenticator.

D. The laptop has not received a valid IP address from the wireless controller.

Correct Answer: A

https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/solutions/Enterprise/Security/TrustSec_199/Dot1X_Deploy ment/ Dot1x_Dep_Guide.html

Question 5:

DRAG DROP

A network engineer must get an autonomous AP to authenticate to the upstream switch via IEEE 802.1 X. Drag and drop the commands from the left onto the right to complete the configuration.

Select and Place:

new Cisco 300-430 dumps exam questions 5

Correct Answer:

new Cisco 300-430 dumps exam questions 5-1

Question 6:

What are two considerations when deploying a Cisco Hyperlocation? (Choose two.)

A. NTP configuration is available, but not recommended.

B. The Cisco Hyperlocation feature must be enabled only on the wireless LAN controller.

C. After enabling Cisco Hyperlocation on Cisco CMX, the APs, and the wireless LAN controller must be restarted.

D. The Cisco Hyperlocation feature must be enabled on the wireless LAN controller and Cisco CMX.

E. If the Cisco CMX server is a VM, a high-end VM is needed for Cisco Hyperlocation deployments.

Correct Answer: DE

Question 7:

The Cisco Hyperlocation detection threshold is currently set to -50 dBm. After reviewing the wireless user location, discrepancies have been noticed. To improve the Cisco Hyperlocation accuracy, an engineer attempts to change the detection threshold to -100 dBm However, the Cisco Catalyst 9800 Series Wireless Controller does not allow this change to be applied. What actions should be taken to resolve this issue?

A. Place the APs to monitor the mode shut down the radios, and then change the Cisco Hyperlocation detection threshold

B. Shut down all radios on the controller, change the Cisco Hyperlocation detection range, and enable the radios again.

C. Disable Cisco Hyperlocation. Change the Cisco Hyperlocation detection threshold and then enable it

D. Create a new profile on Cisco CMX with the new Cisco Hyperlocation detection range, and apply it on the WL AN.

Correct Answer: C

Question 8:

An engineer has configured the wireless controller to authenticate clients on the employee SSID against Microsoft Active Directory using PEAP authentication. Which protocol does the controller use to communicate with the authentication server?

A. EAP

B. 802.1X

C. RADIUS

D. WPA2

Correct Answer: C

Question 9:

Refer to the exhibit.

new Cisco 300-430 dumps exam questions 9

Which two items must be supported on the VoWLAN phones to take full advantage of this WLAN configuration? (Choose two.)

A. TSPEC

B. SIFS

C. 802.11e

D. WMM

E. APSD

Correct Answer: CD

The 802.11e, WMM, and Cisco Compatible Extension specifications help balance and prevent the overloading of a cell with audio streams. CAC determines whether there is enough channel capacity to start a call; if not, the phone can scan for another channel https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/wireless/controller/8-1/Enterprise-Mobility-8-1-Design-Guide/Enterprise_Mobility_8-1_Deployment_Guide/Chapter-9.html

Question 10:

In a Cisco WLAN deployment, it is required that all APs from branch 1 remain operational even if the control plane CAPWAP tunnel is down because of a WAN failure to headquarters.

Which operational mode must be configured on the APs?

A. Disconnected

B. Connected

C. Lightweight

D. Standalone

Correct Answer: D

Question 11:

An engineer is adding APs to an existing VolMLAN to allow for location-based services. Which option will the primary change be to the network?

A. increased transmit power on all APs

B. Moving to a bridging model

C. AP footprint

D. cell overlap would decrease

E. triangulation of devices

Correct Answer: C

Question 12:

Which two events are outcomes of a successful RF jamming attack? (Choose two.)

A. disruption of WLAN services

B. unauthentication association

C. deauthentication broadcast

D. deauthentication multicast

E. physical damage to AP hardware

Correct Answer: AE

https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/wireless/mse/3350/72/wIPS_Configuration/Guide/wIPS_7 2/ msecg_appA_wIPS.html#wp1345929

Question 13:

An engineer is deploying a virtual MSE. The network has 3000 APs and needs 7000 IPS licenses. To which size server does the engineer scale it?

A. virtual

B. standard

C. high end

D. low end

Correct Answer: C

Question 14:

An engineer has successfully implemented 10 active RFID tags in an office environment. The tags are not visible when the location accuracy is tested on the Cisco CMX Detect and Locate window. Which setting on Cisco CMX allows the engineer to view the tags?

A. Enable hyperlocation services for RFID.

B. Enable RFID tags in tracking options

C. Enable probing clients for active tags.

D. Define an RFID group globally and add the tags.

Correct Answer: B

Question 15:

An engineer needs to configure an autonomous AP for 802.Ix authentication. To achieve the highest security an authentication server is used for user authentication During testing, the AP fails to pass the user authentication request to the authentication server.

Which two details need to be configured on the AP to allow the communicator? between the server and the AP? (Choose two.)

A. RADIUS IP address

B. Username and password

C. Group name

D. Shared secret

E. PAC encryption key

Correct Answer: AB

…

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300-430 ENWLSI exam solutions

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Latest CCNP Service Provider 300-515 dumps:300-515 SPVI Exam

admin July 13, 2023

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300-515-SPVI-Exam-topics — image from: https://learningnetwork.cisco.com/s/spvi-exam-topics

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300-515 SVPI Topic Exam Questions

From	Number of exam questions	Associated certifications
leads4pass	15	CCNP Service Provider

Question 1:

Refer to the exhibit. An engineer is trying to configure an EVPN VWPS. What is the issue with this configuration?

A. The member in the VPWS context should be the PE-facing interface.

B. The 12vpn even command should be instance 101.

C. Interface GigabitEthernet0/1/0 should not have any IP address.

D. The service instance and the EVPN instance are different.

Correct Answer: C

Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/ios-xml/ios/mp_l2_vpns/configuration/xe-3s/asr903/16-7-1/b-mpls-l2-vpns-xe-16-7-asr900/epvn_vpws_single_homed.pdf

Question 2:

What does EVPN single-active and all-active have in common?

A. They are default gateway redundancy options.

B. They are multihoming mechanisms used for CE devices.

C. They are used to provide a single connection from a CE device to a service provider.

D. They are both roles that a designated router can take when MPLS is used with EVPN.

Correct Answer: D

Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/routers/asr9000/software/asr9k-r6-2/lxvpn/configuration/guide/b-l2vpn-cg-asr9000-62x/b-l2vpn-cg-asr9000-62x_chapter_01011.html

Question 3:

In an Ethernet Virtual Circuit environment, which restriction do bridge domains have when STP is running?

A. The STP mode must be RSTP or PVST+

B. Bridge domains must be mapped to a different VLAN.

C. The STP mode must be MSTP

D. Bridge domains must belong to different MST instances.

Correct Answer: C

Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/routers/asr920/configuration/guide/ce/b_ce_xe-313s-asr920-book/b_ce_xe-313s-asr920-book_chapter_01.html#reference_770349446ED24E83821EF701DDC46BFD

Question 4:

Which mechanism reduces the network flooding caused by host ARP learning behavior?

A. ARP suppression

B. storm control

C. root guard

D. BPDU guard

Correct Answer: A

Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/products/collateral/switches/nexus-7000-series-switches/white-paper-c11-735015.html

Question 5:

While implementing Layer 3 MPLS VPN, which feature should an engineer use at the PEs to transform the customer IPv4 prefixes into a unique 96-bit prefix?

A. RT

B. VC ID

C. RD

D. PW ID

Correct Answer: C

Question 6:

Which two are characteristics of using a non-MPLS peer-to-peer model over a traditional overlay model? (Choose two.)

A. The model is suited for nonredundant configurations.

B. The configuration on a newly added site PE is updated automatically.

C. Provider routers know the customer network topology.

D. The customer specifies the exact site-to-site traffic profile.

E. Routing information is exchanged between the customer router and one or a few PEs.

Correct Answer: CE

Reference: http://etutorials.org/Networking/MPLS+VPN+Architectures/Part+2+MPLS-based+Virtual+Private+Networks/Chapter+7.+Virtual+Private+Network+VPN+Implementation+Options/Overlay+and+Peer-to-peer+VPN+Model/

Question 7:

DRAG DROP

Drag and drop the EVPN components from the left onto the correct planes on the right.

Select and Place:

Correct Answer:

Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/dam/m/en_us/network-intelligence/service-provider/digital-transformation/knowledge-network-webinars/pdfs/0420-epn-ckn.pdf slide 8

Question 8:

In Layer 3 MPLS VPN implementations, if some of the VPNv4 routes on one PE router do not appear on another PE router, what could be the problem?

A. RD mismatch between the PE routers

B. RT export and import configuration errors

C. VRF name mismatch between the PE routers

D. RD export and import configuration errors

Correct Answer: B

Reference: http://blog.initialdraft.com/archives/1537/

Question 9:

Refer to the exhibit.

An engineer has configured router 1 to provide shared services to clients behind router 2.

To complete the implementation so that routes from router 1 are accepted, what must the engineer configure on router 2?

A. with import route targets 101:102 and 202:201

B. with import route targets 201:202 and 401:402

C. with export route targets 301:202 and 101:102

D. with export route targets 201:202 and 401:402

Correct Answer: B

Question 10:

Refer to the exhibit. Which statement about this configuration is true?

A. Router 1 will accept multicast routes with a route target of 12:1.

B. 192.168.1.2 must be reachable by all routers participating in the VPN-intranet MVRF.

C. Router 1 has statically defined thresholds for data MDT.

D. The MVRF must be configured on each router on the customer and service provider networks.

Correct Answer: A

Question 11:

Refer to the exhibit. What is the effect of this configuration?

A. The route table is cleared.

B. Router 1 accepts multicast routes with a tag of 12:1

C. A Cisco MPLS TE tunnel is generated with 192.168.1.2 as the source IP address of router 1.

D. An LSP virtual interface tunnel is created.

Correct Answer: B

Question 12:

While troubleshooting an AToM L2VPN service, a network consultant notices that the AC Layer 2 encapsulations are different. Which action should the consultant take in order to make the MPLS L2VPN work?

A. tag-rewrite on the ingress and egress PE router

B. interworking IP configuration on the last PE router before label disposition

C. nonrouted interworking setup to properly translate only the Layer 2 information from the AC

D. interworking IP configuration on both the AC terminations on the PEs

Correct Answer: D

Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/ios-xml/ios/mp_l2_vpns/configuration/xe-16-11/mp-l2-vpns-xe-16-11-book/l2vpn-interworking.html

Question 13:

The network engineering group of a large ISP needs to harden the management plane of its Cisco 9000 Series ASRs. While addressing IPv6 ICMP issues, they realized they have to limit the rate at which IPv6 ICMP error messages are sent out on the network. Which command do they need to apply?

A. ICMP ipv6 rate-limit unreachable 1000

B. ipv6 rate-limit 1000

C. ICMP ipv4 rate-limit unreachable 1000

D. ipv6 ICMP error-interval 50 20

Correct Answer: D

Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/ios-xml/ios/ipv6_basic/configuration/xe-3s/ip6b-xe-3s-book/ip6-icmp-rate-lmt-xe.html

Question 14:

A network engineer is implementing Layer 3 MPLS VPNs on Cisco IOS/IOS XE PE routers. Which PE-to-CE routing protocol requires a separate routing process to be created for each VRF?

A. RIPv2

B. OSPF

C. BGP

D. EIGRP

Correct Answer: B

Question 15:

Refer to the exhibit. Which effect of this configuration is true?

A. It configures VPWS multihomed.

B. It configures VPWS single-homed.

C. It configures an IPv4 peering with 192.168.1.1

D. It configures MPLS traffic engineering.

Correct Answer: B

Reference: https://www.ciscolive.com/c/dam/r/ciscolive/emea/docs/2019/pdf/BRKSPG-2798.pdf

…

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Why CCNP Enterprise 300-415 dumps are so important

admin July 5, 2023

Why CCNP Enterprise 300-415 dumps are so important?

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From	Number of exam questions	Associated certifications	Last updated	Exam preparation
leads4pass	15	CCNP Enterprise	300-415 dumps	Exam Preparation

New Question 1:

DRAG DROP

Drag and drop the Cisco SD-WAN components from the left onto their functions on the right.

Select and Place:

CCNP Enterprise 300-415 dumps exam materials 1

Correct Answer:

CCNP Enterprise 300-415 dumps exam materials 1-1

New Question 2:

Which command verifies a policy that has been pushed to the vEdge router?

A. vSmart# show running-config policy

B. vEdge# show running-config data policy

C. vSmart# show running-config apply policy

D. vEdge# show policy from-smart

Correct Answer: D

Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/routers/sdwan/configuration/policies/vedge/policies-book.pdf

New Question 3:

A company deploys a Cisco SD-WAN solution but has an unstable Internet connection. When the link to vSmart comes back up, the WAN Edge router routing table is not refreshed, and some traffic to the destination network is dropped. The headquarters is the hub site, and it continuously adds new sites to the SD-WAN network. An engineer must configure route refresh between WAN Edge and vSmart within 2 minutes.

Which configuration meets this requirement?

A. omp no shutdown graceful-restart

timers

hold time 120

B. omp no shutdown graceful-restart

timers

advertisement-interval 120

C. omp

no shutdown

no graceful-restart

D. omp no shutdown graceful-restart

timers

eor-timer 120

Correct Answer: A

New Question 4:

In Cisco SD-WAN, what protocol is used for controlling connections between SD-WAN devices?

A. BGP

B. OSPF

C. DTLS

D. OMP

Correct Answer: C

In the reference link under the \’Control Plane Authentication\’ part, you can find the following:

Then, during the automatic authentication process, as pairs of devices (routers and controllers) are establishing DTLS control connections, each device compares the serial numbers (and for routers, the chassis numbers) to those in the files installed on the router.

DTLS is the connection that facilitates the exchange of OMP information between the devices. In vManage, the number of control connections also shows the amount of DTLS connections to/from a device. OMP is not the control connection, it\’s the control plane management protocol.

New Question 5:

Refer to the exhibit. An engineer is troubleshooting a control connection issue. What does “connect” mean in this show control connections output?

CCNP Enterprise 300-415 dumps exam materials 5

A. Control connection is down

B. Control connection is up

C. Control connection attempt is in progress

D. Control connection is connected

Correct Answer: C

Reference: https://community.cisco.com/t5/networking-documents/sd-wan-routers-troubleshoot-control-connections/ta-p/3813237

New Question 6:

An administrator wants to create a policy to add a traffic policer called “politer-ccnp” to police data traffic on the WAN Edge.

Which configuration accomplishes this task in vSmart?

CCNP Enterprise 300-415 dumps exam materials 6

A. Option A

B. Option B

C. Option C

D. Option D

Correct Answer: B

New Question 7:

Refer to the exhibit.

CCNP Enterprise 300-415 dumps exam materials 7

Customer XYZ cannot provision dual connectivity on both of its routers due to budget constraints but wants to use both R1 and R2 interlaces for users behind them for load balancing toward the hub site. Which configuration achieves this objective?

CCNP Enterprise 300-415 dumps exam materials 7-1

A. Option A

B. Option B

C. Option C

D. Option D

Correct Answer: A

New Question 8:

Refer to the exhibit.

CCNP Enterprise 300-415 dumps exam materials 8

Which two configurations are needed to get the WAN Edges registered with the controllers when certificates are used? (Choose two)

A. Generate a CSR manually within the vManage server

B. Generate a CSR manually on the WAN Edge

C. Request a certificate manually from the Enterprise CA server

D. Install the certificate received from the CA server manually on the WAN Edge

E. Install the certificate received from the CA server manually on the vManage

Correct Answer: AE

https://www.cisco.com/c/dam/en/us/td/docs/solutions/CVD/SDWAN/cisco-sd-wan-certificates-deploy-2020aug.pdf

New Question 9:

DRAG DROP

Drag and drop the vManage policy configuration procedures from the left onto the correct definitions on the right.

Select and Place:

CCNP Enterprise 300-415 dumps exam materials 9

Correct Answer:

CCNP Enterprise 300-415 dumps exam materials 9-1

Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/routers/sdwan/configuration/policies/vedge/policies-book/data-policies.html

New Question 10:

A large retail organization decided to move some of the branch applications to the AWS cloud. How does the network architect extend the in-house Cisco SD-WAN branch to the cloud network into AWS?

A. Create virtual WAN Edge devices Cloud through the AWS online software store

B. Create virtual instances of vSmart Cloud through the AWS online software store

C. Create GRE tunnels to AWS from each branch over the Internet

D. Install the AWS Cloud Router in the main data center and provide connectivity from each branch

Correct Answer: A

https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/solutions/CVD/SDWAN/Cisco_Cloud_onRamp_for_IaaS_AWS_Version2.html#_Toc54023359

New Question 11:

An enterprise is continuously adding new sites to its Cisco SD-WAN network. It must configure any cached routes flushed when OMP peers have lost adjacency. Which configuration allows the cached OMP routes to be flushed after every 24 hours from its routing table?

CCNP Enterprise 300-415 dumps exam materials 11-1

A. Option A

B. Option B

C. Option C

D. Option D

Correct Answer: A

New Question 12:

What is the benefit of the application-aware firewall?

A. It blocks traffic by MTU of the packet

B. It blocks encrypted traffic

C. It blocks traffic by application

D. It blocks traffic by MAC address

Correct Answer: C

Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/ios-xml/ios/sec_data_zbf/configuration/xe-16-9/sec-data-zbf-xe-16-9-book/sec-data-zbf-xe-16-9-book_chapter_0100100.html

New Question 13:

An administrator needs to configure SD-WAN to divert traffic from the company\’s private network to an ISP network. What action should be taken to accomplish this goal?

A. configure the data security policy

B. configure the application-aware policy

C. configure the control policy

D. configure the data policy

Correct Answer: D

New Question 14:

Refer to the exhibit.

CCNP Enterprise 300-415 dumps exam materials 14

An enterprise has a hub and spoke topology where it has several VPNs. An engineer must allow users in VPN91 to reach users in VPN92 and VPN10 to reach VPN91 and VPN92. Which configuration meets these requirements?

CCNP Enterprise 300-415 dumps exam materials 14-1

CCNP Enterprise 300-415 dumps exam materials 14-2

A. Option A

B. Option B

C. Option C

D. Option D

Correct Answer: C

New Question 15:

DRAG DROP

Drag and drop the BFD parameters from the left onto the BFD configurations on the right.

Select and Place:

CCNP Enterprise 300-415 dumps exam materials 15

Correct Answer:

CCNP Enterprise 300-415 dumps exam materials 15-1

https://sdwandocs.cisco.com/Product_Documentation/vManage_Help/Release_18.2/Configuration/Templates/BFD

…

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Best Cisco 200-201 CBROPS Certification Exam Plans in 2023

admin April 19, 2023

The Cisco 200-201 CBROPS Certification Exam Plans I am going to talk about next come from the stories of many exam winners who passed the 2023 certification exam!

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Type	Number of exam questions	Exam name	Exam code	Answers
Free	15	Understanding Cisco Cybersecurity Operations Fundamentals (CBROPS)	200-201	View

Question 1:

What is obtained using NetFlow?

A. session data

B. application logs

C. network downtime report

D. full packet capture

Question 2:

What is the impact of encryption?

A. Confidentiality of the data is kept secure and permissions are validated

B. Data is accessible and available to permitted individuals

C. Data is unaltered and its integrity is preserved

D. Data is secure and unreadable without decrypting it

Question 3:

What is a description of a social engineering attack?

A. fake offer for free music download to trick the user into providing sensitive data

B. package deliberately sent to the wrong receiver to advertise a new product

C. mistakenly received valuable order destined for another person and hidden on purpose

D. email offering last-minute deals on various vacations around the world with a due date and a counter

Question 4:

An organization is cooperating with several third-party companies. Data exchange is on an unsecured channel using port 80 Internal employees use the FTP service to upload and download sensitive data An engineer must ensure confidentiality while preserving the integrity of the communication. Which technology must the engineer implement in this scenario\’?

A. X 509 certificates

B. RADIUS server

C. CA server

D. web application firewall

Question 5:

An analyst is investigating an incident in a SOC environment. Which method is used to identify a session from a group of logs?

A. sequence numbers

B. IP identifier

C. 5-tuple

D. timestamps

Question 6:

What is the difference between a threat and a risk?

A. Threat represents a potential danger that could take advantage of a weakness in a system

B. Risk represents the known and identified loss or danger in the system

C. Risk represents the nonintentional interaction with uncertainty in the system

D. Threat represents a state of being exposed to an attack or a compromise, either physically or logically.

A threat is any potential danger to an asset. If a vulnerability exists but has not yet been exploited–or, more importantly, it is not yet publicly known–the threat is latent and not yet realized.

Question 7:

What is the function of a command and control server?

A. It enumerates open ports on a network device

B. It drops secondary payload into malware

C. It is used to regain control of the network after a compromise

D. It sends instructions to a compromised system

Question 8:

A security engineer notices confidential data being exfiltrated to a domain “Ranso4134- mware31-895” address that is attributed to a known advanced persistent threat group The engineer discovers that the activity is part of a real attack and not a network misconfiguration. Which category does this event fall under as defined in the Cyber Kill Chain?

A. reconnaissance

B. delivery

C. action on objectives

D. weaponization

Question 9:

Which two elements of the incident response process are stated in NIST Special Publication 800-61 r2? (Choose two.)

A. detection and analysis

B. post-incident activity

C. vulnerability management

D. risk assessment

E. vulnerability scoring

Reference: https://nvlpubs.nist.gov/nistpubs/SpecialPublications/NIST.SP.800-61r2.pdf

Question 10:

Which tool provides a full packet capture from network traffic?

A. Nagios

B. CAINE

C. Hydra

D. Wireshark

Question 11:

Which technology should be used to implement a solution that makes routing decisions based on HTTP header, uniform resource identifier, and SSL session ID attributes?

A. AWS

B. IIS

C. Load balancer

D. Proxy server

Load Balancing: HTTP(S) load balancing is one of the oldest forms of load balancing. This form of load balancing relies on layer 7, which means it operates in the application layer.

This allows routing decisions based on attributes like HTTP header, uniform resource identifier, SSL session ID, and HTML form data.

Load balancing applies to layers 4-7 in the seven-layer Open System Interconnection (OSI) model. Its capabilities are L4. Directing traffic based on network data and transport layer protocols, e.g., IP address and TCP port. L7.

Adds content switching to load balancing, allowing routing decisions depending on characteristics such as HTTP header, uniform resource identifier, SSL session ID, and HTML form data. GSLB. Global Server Load Balancing expands L4 and L7 capabilities to servers in different sites

Question 12:

Refer to the exhibit.

Which type of attack is being executed?

A. SQL injection

B. cross-site scripting

C. cross-site request forgery

D. command injection

Reference: https://www.w3schools.com/sql/sql_injection.asp

Question 13:

What is the difference between the ACK flag and the RST flag?

A. The RST flag approves the connection, and the ACK flag terminates spontaneous connections.

B. The ACK flag confirms the received segment, and the RST flag terminates the connection.

C. The RST flag approves the connection, and the ACK flag indicates that a packet needs to be resent

D. The ACK flag marks the connection as reliable, and the RST flag indicates the failure within TCP Handshake

Question 14:

What is the difference between inline traffic interrogation (TAPS) and traffic mirroring (SPAN)?

A. TAPS interrogation is more complex because traffic mirroring applies additional tags to data and SPAN does not alter the integrity and provides a full-duplex network.

B. SPAN results in more efficient traffic analysis, and TAPS is considerably slower due to latency caused by mirroring.

C. TAPS replicates the traffic to preserve integrity, and SPAN modifies packets before sending them to other analysis tools

D. SPAN ports filter out physical layer errors, making some types of analyses more difficult, and TAPS receives all packets, including physical errors.

Question 15:

A user received a malicious attachment but did not run it. Which category classifies the intrusion?

A. weaponization

B. reconnaissance

C. installation

D. delivery

…

Verify answer:

Questions:

Q1

Q2

Q3

Q4

Q5

Q6

Q7

Q8

Q9

Q10

Q11

Q12

Q13

Q14

Q15

Answers:

A

D

A

C

A

D

AB

D

C

A

B

D

These successful candidates who passed the Cisco 200-201 CBROPS Certification Exam in 2023 provided me with a lot of advice, I compiled some and shared them with you! I hope it can help all candidates!

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2023 Lead4Pass Latest Updated DevNet Associate 200-901 Dumps

admin March 6, 2023

Candidates use the latest updated DevNet Associate 200-901 dumps from leads4pass 2023: https://www.leads4pass.com/200-901.html to help them jump over the hurdles and pass the 200-901 DEVASC exam successfully.

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Read DevNet Associate 200-901 Dumps Exam Questions and Answers Shared Free 2023 Online:

Type	Number of exam questions	Exam name	Exam code	Last updated
Free	15	Developing Applications and Automating Workflows using Cisco Platforms (DEVASC)	200-901	200-901 dumps

Question 1:

DRAG DROP

Drag and drop the HTTP status codes from the left onto the correct descriptions on the right.

Select and Place:

latest DevNet Associate 200-901 Dumps questions 1

Correct Answer:

latest DevNet Associate 200-901 Dumps questions 1-1

Question 2:

What is a principle of a code review process?

A. Changes are made after the code is submitted to source control.

B. It must not prevent code from getting into production as quickly as possible.

C. Naming standards must be consistent.

D. A technical lead must sign off on the review.

Correct Answer: D

Question 3:

A developer creates a web application that receives a username and password and uses them to sync the credentials to other services through HTTPS. API keys to services are part of the configuration files of the application, but the credentials to the database that stores the synchronization logs are obtained through an external vault service. What is the security issue in this scenario?

A. Communication between the application and the services is not encrypted.

B. The database credentials should be stored in the configuration files so that they are secured on the same server.

C. The API keys are stored in the configuration files but should be stored in the vault service.

D. The synchronization logs should be encrypted and not stored in a relational database.

Correct Answer: A

Question 4:

What are the two benefits of implementing common data structures when working with APIs in remote systems? (Choose two.)

A. ensures that developers are limited to using one data schema type

B. prevents multivendor interoperability

C. improves security in RESTful web services

D. enforces standardized data structures

E. leverages code that is easily managed and reused

Correct Answer: BE

Question 5:

A developer creates a script that configured multiple Cisco IOS XE devices in a corporate infrastructure. The internal test environment is unavailable, and no maintenance window is available to test on a low-priority production environment. Which resource is used to test the code before it is applied to the production environment?

A. Code Exchange

B. Cisco DevNet Learning Labs

C. Cisco DevNet Sandbox

D. Cisco Support

Correct Answer: C

Question 6:

latest DevNet Associate 200-901 Dumps questions 6

Refer to the exhibit. An engineer must check the admin rights of users on a database regularly and prepares the Python script to automate the process. The script connects to the database and runs a query. What is a security issue about the secrets in the code that relates to secret protection?

A. They must be stored in configuration files if there is a possibility of leakage.

B. They must be Base64-encoded if stored in the user database.

C. They must be encrypted if stored in the user database.

D. They must be stored in configuration files if no authentication will be used.

Correct Answer: D

Question 7:

Which advantage does the agile process offer compared to waterfall software development?

A. to add or update features with incremental delivery

B. to view the full scope of end-to-end work

C. to have each phase end before the next begins

D. to fix any issues at the end of the development cycle

Correct Answer: A

Question 8:

Which two statements are true about Cisco UCS Manager, Cisco UCS Director, or Cisco Intersight APIs? (Choose two.)

A. UCS Manager uses JSON to encode API interactions and utilizes Base64-encoded credentials in the HTTP header for authentication.

B. UCS Director API interactions can be XML- or JSON-encoded and require an API key in the HTTP header for authentication.

C. Cisco Intersight uses XML to encode API interactions and requires an API key pair for authentication.

D. UCS Manager API interactions are XML-encoded and require a cookie in the method for authentication.

E. Cisco Intersight API interactions can be encoded in XML or JSON and require an API key in the HTTP header for authentication.

Correct Answer: BD

Reference:

https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/unified_computing/ucs/ucs-director/rest-api-getting-started-guide/6-5/cisco-ucs-director-REST-API-getting-started-65.html

https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/unified_computing/ucs/sw/api/b_ucs_api_book.pdf

Question 9:

Refer to the exhibit.

latest DevNet Associate 200-901 Dumps questions 9

Which OWASP threat does this example demonstrate?

A. broken access control

B. cross-site scripting

C. SQL injection

D. man-in-the-middle

Correct Answer: B

https://owasp.org/www-chapter-coimbatore/assets/files/Web%20Application%20Security%20Adithyan% 20AK.pdf

Question 10:

Refer to the exhibit.

latest DevNet Associate 200-901 Dumps questions 10

An API call is constructed to retrieve the inventory in XML format by using the API. The response to the call is 401 Unauthorized. Which two headers must he add to the API call? (Choose two.)

A. Bearer-Token: dXNlcm5hbWU6cGFzc3dvemQ=

B. Content-Type: application/XML

C. Authentication: Bearer dXNlcm5hbWU6cGFzc3dvemQ=

D. Accept: application/XML

E. Authorization: Bearer dXNlcm5hbWU6cGFzc3dvemQ=

Correct Answer: BE

Question 11:

Refer to the exhibit. A network engineer wants to automate the port enable/disable process on specific Cisco switches. The engineer creates a script to send a request through RESTCONF and uses ietf as the YANG model and JSON as payload. Which command enables an interface named Loopback1?

A. enable_function(Loopback1, true, `iana-if-type:softwareLoopback\’)

B. enable_function(`iana-if-type:softwareLoopback\’, Loopback1, true,)

C. def enable_function(`iana-if-type:softwareLoopback\’, Loopback1, false,)

D. def enable_function(Loopback1, true, `iana-if-type:softwareLoopback\’)

Correct Answer: D

Question 12:

The developer is working on a new feature and made changes on a branch named ‘branch-413667549a-new’. When merging the branch to production, conflicts occurred. Which Git command must the developer use to recreate the pre-merge state?

A. git merge –no-edit

B. git merge –commit

C. git merge –revert

D. git merge –abort

Correct Answer: D

Question 13:

Which device is a system that monitors and controls the incoming and outgoing network traffic based on predetermined security roles?

A. router

B. switch

C. load balancer

D. firewall

Correct Answer: D

Question 14:

Refer to the exhibit.

latest DevNet Associate 200-901 Dumps questions 14

Python code has been written to query a device. The executed code results in the error shown. Which action resolves the problem?

A. import json

B. requests(“GET”, base_url + request_url, cookles=cookies)

C. pip install requests

D. import requests

Correct Answer: D

Question 15:

A developer completed the creation of a script using Git. Before delivering it to the customer, the developer wants to be sure about all untracked files, without losing any information. Which command gathers this information?

A. git clean –n

B. git rm –f

C. git clean –r

D. git rm *

Correct Answer: A

…

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Latest Lead4pass 500-220 dumps with PDF and VCE For 2023

admin January 11, 2023

leads4pass 500-220 dumps contain 57 latest exam questions with answers for the 2023 Cisco Meraki Solutions Specialist certification exam.

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Share a part of the latest 500-220 dumps exam questions and answers for free to read online:

Number of exam questions	Exam name	Exam code	Last updated
15	Cisco Meraki Solutions Specialist	500-220	500-220 dumps

Question 1:

When wireless SSIDs are configured in Dashboard, which setting on the Access Control page affects the ability of a 2.4 GHz-only client device from associating to the WLAN for the first time?

A. Content filtering

B. Bridge mode

C. 802.11r

D. Dual band operating with Band Steering

Correct Answer: D

Question 2:

Refer to the exhibit. This Dashboard organization uses a Co-Termination licensing model.

What happens when an additional seven APs are claimed on this network without adding licenses?

A. All APs immediately stop functioning.

B. All network devices stop functioning in 30 days.

C. One AP Immediately stops functioning.

D. All APs stop functioning in 30 days.

Correct Answer: B

Question 3:

How is high availability supported for Cisco Meraki devices?

A. Only the MX Security Appliances that use VRRP support high availability.

B. An active/active high-availability pair is recommended for MX Security Appliances.

C. The MX Security Appliances and MS Series Switches that use VRRP support an active/passive high-availability pair.

D. The MX Security Appliances and MS Series Switches that use HSRP support an active/passive high-availability pair.

Correct Answer: A

Reference: https://documentation.meraki.com/MX/Deployment_Guides/MX_Warm_Spare_-_High_Availability_Pair

Question 4:

Air Marshal has contained a malicious SSID.

What are the two effects on connectivity? (Choose two.)

A. Currently associated clients stay connected.

B. New clients can connect.

C. Currently associated clients are affected by restrictive traffic shaping rules.

D. New clients cannot connect.

E. Currently associated clients are disconnected.

Correct Answer: DE

Question 5:

Refer to the exhibit. For an AP that displays this alert, which network access control method must be in use?

A. preshared key

B. WPA2-enterprise with my RADIUS server

C. splash page with my RADIUS server

D. MAC-based access control with a RADIUS server

Correct Answer: A

Question 6:

One thousand concurrent users stream video to their laptops. A 30/70 split between 2.4 GHz and 5 GHz is used. Based on the client count, how many APs (rounded to the nearest whole number) are needed?

A. 26

B. 28

C. 30

D. 32

Correct Answer: C

Question 7:

A customer wants to use Microsoft Azure to host corporate application servers.

Which feature does the customer get by using a vMX appliance rather than connecting directly to Azure by VPN?

A. malware protection

B. SD-WAN

C. next-generation firewall

D. intrusion prevention

Correct Answer: C

Question 8:

Which Cisco Meraki product must be deployed in addition to Systems Manager so that Systems Manager Sentry enrollment can be used?

A. MS Switch

B. Meraki Insight

C. MR Access Point

D. MV Smart Camera

Correct Answer: C

Reference: https://meraki.cisco.com/blog/tag/systems-manager/page/4/

Question 9:

In an organization that uses the Co-Termination licensing model, which two operations enable licenses to be applied? (Choose two.)

A. Renew the Dashboard license.

B. License a network.

C. License more devices.

D. Call Meraki support.

E. Wait for the devices to auto-renew.

Correct Answer: AC

Reference: https://documentation.meraki.com/General_Administration/Licensing/Meraki_Co-Termination_Licensing_Overview

Question 10:

DRAG DROP

Drag and drop the settings from the left into the boxes on the right to indicate if the setting will be cloned or not cloned using the Cisco Meraki MS switch cloning feature.

Select and Place:

Correct Answer:

Question 11:

DRAG DROP

Drag and drop the steps from the left into the sequence on the right to manage device control, according to Cisco Meraki best practice.

Select and Place:

Correct Answer:

Question 12:

A new application needs to be pushed to all iOS devices. Some devices report “NotNow” in the event log and do not install the application. What does the “NotNow” event indicate?

A. The application requires the most recent iOS version.

B. The device is locked with a passcode.

C. The device cannot connect to Apple servers.

D. The device cannot connect to Cisco Meraki servers.

Correct Answer: B

Reference: https://community.meraki.com/t5/Mobile-Device-Management/Check-NotNow-Status/td-p/3887

Question 13:

What is the best practice Systems Manager enrollment method when deploying corporate-owned iOS devices?

A. manual

B. Apple Configurator

C. Sentry enrollment

D. DEP

Correct Answer: B

Reference: https://meraki.cisco.com/lib/pdf/meraki_whitepaper_ios.pdf

Question 14:

Refer to the exhibit. Which IDS/IPS mode is the MX Security Appliance configured for?

A. quarantine

B. prevention

C. detection

D. blocking

Correct Answer: B

Question 15:

A customer requires a hub-and-spoke Auto VPN deployment with two NAT-mode hubs with dual uplink connections and 50 remote sites with a single uplink connection. How many tunnels do each hub need to support?

A. 52

B. 54

C. 100

D. 104

Correct Answer: C

…

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Latest Leads4Pass 200-301 dumps for the 2025 CCNA exam

admin January 3, 2023

Fro 2025

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For 2025 leads4pass 200-301 dumps exam questions and answers:

Number of exam questions	Exam name	Exam code	Updated
15	Implementing and Administering Cisco Solutions (CCNA)	200-301	2024.12.27

New Question 1:

Refer the exhibit.

What is the cause of poor performance on router R19?

A. excessive collisions

B. speed and duplex mismatch

C. port oversubscription

D. excessive CRC errors

Correct Answer: A

New Question 2:

Refer to the exhibit.

An administrator is tasked with configuring a voice VLAN. What is the expected outcome when a Cisco phone is connected to the GigabitEthernet 3/1/4 port on a switch?

A. The phone and a workstation that is connected to the phone do not have VLAN connectivity.

B. The phone sends and receives data in VLAN 50, but a workstation connected to the phone sends and receives data in VLAN 1.

C. The phone sends and receives data in VLAN 50, but a workstation connected to the phone has no VLAN connected.

D. The phone and a workstation that is connected to the phone send and receive data in VLAN 50.

Correct Answer: B

New Question 3:

An administrator must secure the WLC from receiving spoofed association requests. Which steps must be taken to configure the WLC to restrict the requests and force the user to wait 10 ms to retry an association request?

A. Enable Security Association Teardown Protection and set the SA Query timeout to 10

B. Enable MAC filtering and set the SA Query timeout to 10

C. Enable 802.1x Layer 2 security and set me Comeback timer to 10

D. Enable the Protected Management Frame service and set the Comeback timer to 10

Correct Answer: D

“You then need to specify the comeback timer and SA query timeout. The comeback timer specifies the time that an associated client must wait before the association can be tried again…” https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/support/docs/wireless-mobility/wireless-lan-wlan/212576-configure-802-11w-management-frame-prote.html

New Question 4:

Which command enables IPv6 forwarding on a Cisco router?

A. ipv6 local

B. ipv6 host

C. ipv6 unicast-routing

D. ipv6 neighbor

Correct Answer: C

To enable IPv6 routing on the Cisco router use the following command:

ipv6 unicast-routing

If this command is not recognized, your version of IOS does not support IPv6.

New Question 5:

DRAG DROP

Drag and drop the characteristic from the left onto the cable type on the right.

Select and Place:

Correct Answer:

new ccna 200-301 dumps exam questions 5-1

New Question 6:

Which plane is centralized by an SON controller?

A. management-plane

B. control-plane

C. data-plane

D. services-plane

Correct Answer: B

Question 7:

Refer to the exhibit.

The DHCP server is configured with a DHCP pool for each of the subnets represented. Which command must be configured on switch SW1 to allow DHCP clients on VLAN 10 to receive dynamic IP addresses from the DHCP server?

A. SW1(config-if)#ip helper-address 192.168.10.1

B. SW1(config-if)#ip helper-address 192.168.20.1

C. SW1(config-if)#ip helper-address 192.168.20.2

D. SW1(config-if)#ip helper-address 192.168.10.2

Correct Answer: C

New Question 8:

What does a switch do when it receives a frame whose destination MAC address is missing from the MAC address table?

A. It floods the frame unchanged across all remaining ports in the incoming VLAN.

B. It appends the table with a static entry for the MAC and shuts down the port.

C. It updates the CAM table with the destination MAC address of the frame.

D. It changes the checksum of the frame to a value that indicates an invalid frame.

Correct Answer: A

New Question 9:

DRAG DROP

Refer to the exhibit.

Drag and drop the learned prefixes from the left onto the preferred route methods from which they were learned on the right. Not all prefixes are used.

Select and Place:

new ccna 200-301 dumps exam questions 9-1

Correct Answer:

new ccna 200-301 dumps exam questions 9-2

New Question 10:

Refer to the exhibit.

new ccna 200-301 dumps exam questions 10

PC A is communicating with another device at IP address 10.225.34.225. Through which router does router Y route the traffic?

A. Rrouter A

B. Rrouter B

C. Rrouter C

D. Rrouter D

Correct Answer: C

10.128.0.0/9

Obviously is included, but not the longest match.

10.224.0.0/15

Starts: 10.224.0.0

Ends: 10.225.255.255

10.255.34.255 IS included

10.224.0.0/11 Starts: 10.224.0.0 Ends: 10.255.255.255

10.255.34.255 IS NOT included

New Question 11:

DRAG DROP

Drag and drop the AAA features from the left onto the corresponding AAA security services on the right. Not all options are used.

Select and Place:

new ccna 200-301 dumps exam questions 11

Correct Answer:

new ccna 200-301 dumps exam questions 11-1

New Question 12:

Refer to the exhibit. Router R1 resides in OSPF Area 0. After updating the R1 configuration to influence the paths that it will use to direct traffic, an engineer verified that each of the four Gigabit interfaces has the same route to 10.10.0.0/16. Which interface will R1 choose to send traffic to reach the route?

new ccna 200-301 dumps exam questions 12

A. GigabitEthernet0/0

B. GigabltEthornet0/1

C. GigabitEthernet0/2

D. GigabitEthernet0/3

Correct Answer: B

ref BW 100000 MB

ref BW BW G0/0 100000MB divided by 10000MB (or 10000000KB) = 10 cost

G0/1 100000MB divided by 100000MB (or 100000000KB) = 1 cost

New Question 13:

What must be considered before deploying virtual machines?

A. resource limitations, such as the number of CPU cores and the amount of memory

B. support for physical peripherals, such as monitors, keyboards, and mice

C. whether to leverage VSM to map multiple virtual processors to two or more virtual machines

D. location of the virtual machines within the data center environment

Correct Answer: A

New Question 14:

An office has 8 floors with approximately 30-40 users per floor. What command must be configured on the router Switched Virtual Interface to use address space efficiently?

A. ip address 192.168.0.0 255.255.0.0

B. ip address 192.168.0.0 255.255.254.0

C. ip address 192.168.0.0 255.255.255.128

D. ip address 192.168.0.0 255.255.255.224

Correct Answer: B

need ip count: 30-40 * 8 = 320 ip

255.255.254.0 – 510 IP

New Question 15:

Refer to the exhibit.

new ccna 200-301 dumps exam questions 15

When an administrator executes the show ip route command on router D to view its routing table, which value is displayed for the administrative distance for the route to network 192.168 1.0?

A. 110

B. 120

C. 170

D. 90

Correct Answer: A

If you test in Packet Tracer, you will see that every route redistributed from another protocol (interface X) on the router to (interface Y) OSPF, appears ON THE NEXT router as “O E2”, but the administrative distance remains the same “AD 110”.

Unlike EIGRP – when a router receives a redistributed route from another protocol (in this case RIPv2), it will appear as an EIGRP route with the initials “D EX”, but its administrative distance will no longer be 90, in this case it will appear as “AD 170”.

In the question we have both, AD 110 (O E2) or AD 170 (D EX) for the same destination network 192.168 1.0. AD 110 will be the winner and will appear in the routing table of router D… AD 170 will be a backup and will only be displayed if the first one fails.

…

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Latest Lead4Pass 300-420 dumps for 300-420 ENSLD exam 2023

admin January 3, 2023

leads4pass 300-420 dumps prepare 225 latest exam questions and answers for candidates taking the 300-420 ENSLD exam, the most effective solution for 2023.

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Read some leads4pass 300-420 dumps exam questions and answers online:

Number of exam questions	Exam name	Exam code	Last updated
15	Designing Cisco Enterprise Networks (ENSLD)	300-420	300-420 dumps

Question 1:

Which consideration must be taken into account when using the DHCP relay feature in a Cisco SD-Access Architecture?

A. DHCP-relay must be enabled on fabric edge nodes to provide the correct mapping of DHCP scope to the local anycast gateway.

B. A DHCP server must be enabled on the border nodes to allow subnets to span multiple fabric edges.

C. DHCP servers must support Cisco SD-Access extensions to correctly assign IPs to endpoints in an SD-Access fabric with anycast gateway.

D. DHCP Option-82 must be enabled to map the circuit IP option to the access fabric node where the DHCP discovery originated.

Correct Answer: D

https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/cloud-systems-management/network-automation-and-management/dna-center/tech_notes/sda_dhcp/b_cisco_sda_dhcp.html

Question 2:

Which design consideration must be made when dual vEdge routers are deployed at a branch site?

A. Use BGP AS-path prepending to influence egress traffic and use MED to influence ingress traffic from the branch.

B. HSRP priorities must match the OMP routing policy to prefer one vEdge over the other.

C. Traffic must be symmetrical as it egresses the vEdges and returns from remote sites for DPI to function properly.

D. Configure BFD between vEdge routers to detect sub-second link failures.

Correct Answer: A

Question 3:

How are wireless endpoints registered in the HTDB in a Cisco SD-Access architecture?

A. Fabric edge nodes update the HTDB based on CAPPWAP messaging from the AP

B. Fabric WLCs update the HTDB as new clients connect to the wireless network

C. Border nodes first register endpoints and then update the HTDB

D. Fabric APs update the HTDB with the clients\’ ElD and RLOC

Correct Answer: B

Question 4:

Refer to the exhibit.

The full EIGRP routing table is advertised throughout the network. Currently, users experience data loss when any one link in the network fails. An architect must optimize the network to reduce the impact when a link fails. Which solution should the architect include in the design?

A. Run BFD on the interlinks between EIGRP neighbors.

B. Summarize the access layer networks from each access layer switch toward the aggregation layer.

C. Reduce the default EIGRP hello interval and hold time.

D. Summarize the access layer networks from the aggregation layer toward the core layer.

Correct Answer: A

Question 5:

Which OSPF area blocks LSA Type 3, 4, and 5, but allows a default summary route?

A. normal

B. stub

C. NSSA

D. totally stubby

Correct Answer: D

Question 6:

An engineer uses Postman and YANG to configure a router with: OSPF process ID 400 network 192.168.128.128/25 enabled for Area 0

Which get-config reply verifies that the model set was designed correctly?

A. Option A

B. Option B

C. Option C

D. Option D

Correct Answer: B

Question 7:

In an SD-WAN architecture, which methods are used to bootstrap a vEdge router?

A. DHCP options or manual configuration

B. manage or DNS records

C. ZTP or manual configuration

D. DNS records or DHCP options

Correct Answer: C

Question 8:

Which type of rendezvous point deployment is standards-based and supports dynamic RP discovery?

A. Auto-RP

B. Anycast-RP

C. bootstrap router

D. static RP

Correct Answer: C

Question 9:

Refer to the exhibit. An architect must create a stable and scalable EIGRP solution for a customer. The design must:

1.

conserve bandwidth, memory, and CPU processing

2.

prevent suboptimal routing

3.

avoid any unnecessary queries

Which two solutions must the architect select? (Choose two.)

A. route summarization

B. prefix lists

C. distribute lists

D. stub routing

E. static redistribution

Correct Answer: AC

Question 10:

Which two functions are provided by the Cisco SD-WAN orchestration plane? (Choose two.)

A. centralized provisioning

B. primary authentication point

C. NAT traversal facilitation

D. Zero Touch Provisioning

E. troubleshooting and monitoring

Correct Answer: BC

Question 11:

At which layer does Cisco Express Forwarding use adjacency tables to populate addressing information?

A. Layer4

B. Layer 2

C. Layer 1

D. Layer 3

Correct Answer: B

Question 12:

Refer to the exhibit. An engineer is designing a BGP solution for a client that peers with ISP1 for full Internet connectivity and with ISP2 for direct exchange of routes for several third parties. Which action, when implemented on the edge routers, enables the client network to reach the Internet through ISP1?

A. Run an eBGP session within different VRFs for each ISP.

B. Advertise a default route for downstream routers within the client network.

C. Apply the AS-path prepend feature for ISP2.

D. Apply route filtering such that the client advertises only routes originating from its own AS.

Correct Answer: B

Question 13:

DRAG DROP

Drag and drop the characteristics from the left onto the Yang model they describe on the right.

Select and Place:

Correct Answer:

Question 14:

Which PIM mode uses a shared tree only?

A. bidirectional

B. sparse

C. dense

D. source-specific

Correct Answer: A

In bidirectional mode, traffic is routed only along a bidirectional shared tree that is rooted at the rendezvous point (RP) for the group https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/ios-xml/ios/ipmulti_pim/configuration/xe-16/imc-pim-xe-16-book/imc-tech-oview.html

Question 15:

What is the purpose of a Cisco SD-Access underlay network?

A. to abstract IP-based connectivity from physical connectivity

B. to emulate LAN segments to transport Layer 2 frames over a Layer 3 network

C. to establish physical connectivity between switches and routers

D. to provide virtualization by encapsulating network traffic over IP tunnels

Correct Answer: C

…

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